Module 2: General Survey

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Last updated 11:05 PM on 9/5/26
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171 Terms

1
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what is the general survey?

the initial appraisal of the client’s overall presentation, appearance, and behaviors

2
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which finding is assessed under appearance?

mental status

3
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which finding is included when assessing behavior?

speech

4
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what is part of body structure assessment?

posture

5
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which measurements are anthropometric measurements?

height, weight, and BMI

6
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which assessment is considered the subjective vital sign?

pain

7
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what does assessment of appearance provide?

initial cues about neurological, psychiatric, and psychological conditions

8
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which facial finding is expected?

symmetric smile and eye closure

9
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an expressionless or mask like face may indicate which condition?

Depression or Parkinson’s disease

10
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a drooping eyelid is called what?

ptosis

11
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what may facial asymmetry with one side of the mouth drooping indicate?

stroke or bell’s palsy

12
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which facial finding is unexpected?

involuntary twitching

13
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which emotional presentation is expected?

calm and relaxed

14
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what should the nurse consider when interpreting eye contact behaviors?

cultural background

15
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what does A&O x4 stand for?

alert and oriented to person, place, time, and situation

16
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what condition is characterized by acute, sudden, fluctuating confusion?

delirium

17
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which condition is characterized by chronic, progressive confusion?

dementia

18
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which level of consciousness requires loud auditory or physical to arouse the client?

obtundation

19
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a client who responds to pain with movement or incoherent vocalizations is demonstrating what?

stupor

20
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what does pallor describe?

skin lighter than the surrounding skin

21
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what is cyanosis characterized by?

a bluish skin tone

22
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what can cyanosis indicate?

hypoxia or poor perfusion

23
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jaundice is characterized by what?

yellow skin

24
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what is jaundice associated with?

bilirubin buildup or liver dysfunction

25
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erythema refers to what?

red to purple skin

26
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what may erythema be associated with?

inflammation, infection, or fever

27
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what speech characteristics should the nurse assess?

fluency, pace, and articulation

28
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what can a hoarse or whispering voice indicate?

laryngeal disease or strain

29
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what is dysarthria?

slurred, garbled, or difficult-to-articulate speech

30
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what is aphasia?

difficulty finding, expressing, or understanding language

31
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what is echolalia?

repetitive parroting of words

32
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what is mood?

the client’s internal emotional state

33
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what is affect?

how the client’s mood appears to others

34
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what is flat affect?

an expressionless, unresponsive face that does not change with conversation

35
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what is halitosis?

bad breath

36
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what can fruity breath indicate?

diabetic ketoacidosis

37
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what is ammonia breath often associated with?

advanced kidney disease

38
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a fetid odor can suggest what?

deep dental, oral, or respiratory infection

39
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fecal breath odor may indicate what?

bowel obstruction with vomiting

40
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what does a plumb line represent?

a vertical line through the outer ear, shoulder, hip, patella, and ankle

41
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a stiff spine and neck moving as one unit may indicate what?

pain or severe arthritis

42
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uneven weight distribution in the face, neck, and trunk may indicate what?

cushing’s syndrome

43
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what is crepitus?

a cracking, popping, or grating sound from joint surfaces rubbing

44
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what is spasticity?

increased muscle tone with increased resistance to passive extension

45
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what is fasciculation?

continuous, rapid, fine muscle twitching at rest

46
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what is rigidity?

resistance to passive manipulation regardless of speed

47
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which movement is an example of myoclonus?

sudden shock-like jerking

48
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what device should be used to measure the height of a standing client?

stadiometer

49
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how should height be measured for a client unable to stand?

supine from crown of the head to the bottom of the heel

50
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what should the nurse do before using a balancing scale?

set it ot zero

51
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for frequent weight monitoring, which approach provides the most consistent measurements?

same time, scale, type of clothing

52
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a gain of approximately five pounds in one day is a warning sign for what?

acute fluid retention

53
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rapid weight gain of 5 pounds in one day is commonly associated with worsening what?

heart failure

54
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which weight loss is considered clinically significant?

5% within one month

55
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which additional amount of unintentional weight loss is significant?

10% within 6 months

56
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a BMI below 18.5 is classified as what?

underweight

57
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a BMi of 18.5-24.9 is classified as what?

healthy weight

58
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a BMI of 25.0-29.9 is classified as what?

overweight

59
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a BMI of 30 or greater is classified as what?

obese

60
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a high BMI of 30 or greater increases the risk for what?

hypertension and type 2 diabetes

61
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poor nutrition associated with low BMI can increase the risk for what?

infection and delayed wound healing

62
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which gastrointestinal symptoms should be assessed when evaluating low BMI?

nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and heartburn

63
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which social factor should the nurse assess when evaluating low BMI?

ability to afford food

64
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what is the expected core body temperature range?

96.8 - 100.4 degrees fahrenheit , 36 - 38 degrees celsius

65
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a core temperature is typically how much higher than surface skin temperature?

0.5 degrees celsius

66
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which part of the brain regulates body temperature?

hypothalamus

67
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which hypothalamic region regulates heat loss?

anterior hypothalamus

68
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which hypothalamic region regulates heat production and conservation?

posterior hypothalamus

69
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which response helps the body lose height?

vasodilation and sweating

70
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which response helps conserve or produce heat?

vasoconstriction and shivering

71
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when does body temperature generally peak?

around 4pm

72
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when is body temperature generally lowest?

early morning, approximately 1-4am

73
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which temperature route is most commonly used?

oral

74
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how long should a client wait after smoking, eating, or drinking hot/cold liquids before an oral temperature?

ten minutes

75
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which route provides the most accurate core temperature?

rectal

76
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which client is an appropriate candidate for a rectal temperature?

a comatose client

77
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which is a contraindication to rectal temperature measurement?

thrombocytopenia and active diarrhea

78
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where is a temporal thermometer briefly placed after sliding it across the forehead?

behind the earlobe

79
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which temperature route is safest but least accurate?

axillary

80
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which temperature route is rarely used in adults?

axillary

81
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which factor can make a tympanic temperature inaccurate?

heavy earwax

82
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which formula converts fahrenheit to celsius?

(F-32) x 5/9

83
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which formula converts celsius to fahrenheit?

(9/5 x C) + 32

84
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a temperature of 102 degrees Fahrenheit would be classified as what?

hyperthermia/fever

85
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hypothermia is characterized by what?

core temperature below expected limits

86
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what does a peripheral pulse represent?

expansion of an artery as the heart contracts

87
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which pulse site is primary for a stable client?

radial

88
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which pulse site may be used when a client is unstable or has poor cardiac output?

apical

89
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which pulse site is located in the neck?

carotid

90
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what should be applied before using a doppler to assess a diminished pulse?

transmission gel

91
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at what angle should the transducer be placed?

90 degrees

92
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what sound should be heard when locating a pulse with doppler?

whooshing

93
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which fingers should be used to palpate a peripheral pulse?

index and middle finger pads

94
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how long should a regular pulse be counted?

30 seconds x 2

95
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how long should an irregular pulse be counted?

Full 60 seconds

96
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what is the expected adult resting heart rate?

60-100bpm

97
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a resting heart rate below 60bpm is called what?

bradycardia

98
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bradycardia may be an expected finding in who?

highly conditioned athletes

99
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which condition can cause pathological bradycardia?

hypothyroidism

100
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when bradycardia is detected, what should the nurse assess?

apical pulse