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Medical History
Define the following:
A well-formulated structure that helps determine the patient's problems in a logical order and to establish any other relevant information
Engaging your patient
- First impressions matter
- Introduce yourself
- Communicate attentiveness
- Meet your patient where they are
- Try to be at eye level with your patient
- Make sure your patient is comfortable and do not rush them
- Give your patient the opportunity to speak
- Remember that your patient may not know what is important and what isn't
- Do not rush
- Ask open ended questions
- Create a setting where your patient is comfortable to volunteer person information to you
How can you set yourself up for success when taking a medical history?
- Demographic information
- Chief complaint
- History of Present Illness
- Past Medical History
- Past Surgical History
- Family History
- Social History
- Medications
- Allergies
- Review of Systems
What is the order of taking a structured medical history?
Chief complaint
What is a one sentence summary in the patients own words?
History of Present Illness (HPI)
Define the following:
Includes information gathered by your questioning of patient regarding their chief complaint
OLD CARTS
- Constitutional symptoms (fever, chills, lethargy, etc) should also be included
When recording a History of present illness, what nuemonic can help you gather all important information?
Onset
The O in OLD CARTS stands for:
Location/radiation
The L in OLD CARTS stands for:
Duration
The D in OLD CARTS stands for:
Character
The C in OLD CARTS stands for:
Aggravating factors
The A in OLD CARTS stands for:
Relieving factors
The R in OLD CARTS stands for:
Timing
The T in OLD CARTS stands for:
Severity
The S in OLD CARTS stands for:
True
T/F: From the med history, you will be asked what the patients medications are used to treat and what concerns they may pose to care
Review of systems
What has the following characteristics?
- Sequential, comprehensive method of eliciting patient symptoms on an organ system basis
- May reveal undiagnosed medical conditions unknown to the patient
- Should be guided by pertinent answers obtained from the history
- Cardiovascular
- Respiratory
- Nervous systems
If IV sedation or GA is planned, what systems should be reviewed?
- Head
- Ears
- Eyes
- Nose
- Mouth
- Throat
Dentists are expected to perform a quick review of what on every patient?
- Cardiovascular
- Respiratory (Pulmonary)
- Nervous
- Musculoskeletal
- GI
- Endocrine
- Urinary
- Reproductive
- Immune
- Lymphatic
- Integumentary
What are the organ systems that should be reviewed during review of systems?
- Physical exam
- Radiographs
What information is gathered after the patient history is complete?
ASA I
ID the ASA status:
- A Normal Healthy Patient
ASA II
ID the ASA status:
- A Patient with Mild Systemic Disease
- Mild Asthma, Controlled Hypertension, Anemia, Controlled Seizure, Early NIDDM
ASA III
ID the ASA status:
- A Patient with Severe Systemic Disease Which Limits Activity
- Angina Pectoris, Prior MI, COPD, IDDM, Advanced NIDDM
ASA IV
ID the ASA status:
- A Patient with Incapacitating Disease that is a Constant Threat to Life
- Congestive Heart Failure, End Stage Renal Disease, Advanced COPD, Hepatic Failure
Metabolic Equivalents (METS)
What has the following characteristics?
- Energy cost of physical activity
- Defined as the ratio of metabolic rate during activity to reference metabolic rate (3.5ml O2)/(kg x min)
- 1 MET = 1 kcal/(kg x h)
- Blood pressure
- Pulse
- Respiratory rate
- O2 saturation
- Temperature
What vitals information should be gathered during the physical exam?
Head and neck exam
What part of the physical exam...
- Notes any asymmetries, swellings, abnormal lesions such as moles or ulcers
- Palpates the face and neck to note any pain on palpation, swellings, etc.
- If maxillary sinus is involved, percussing the maxillary sinus area may be warranted
intraoral exam
What part of the physical exam...
- Examine the dentition
- Note any swellings, pain on palpation, firmness of the floor of the mouth, deviation of the uvula, etc.
- Note any pathologies including ulcers, pigmentations, or raised lesions
False! Both pertinent positive and pertinent negatives must be documented. Within normal limits (or any of the myriad synonyms will not be accepted)
T/F: Only fill in the medical history for pertinent positives
PA radiograph
What type of radiograph should be taken for single teeth (except 3rd molars)?
Panoramic radiograph
What type of radiograph should be taken for...
- Overview of the maxilla and the mandible
- Good for boney pathologies, 3rd molars, dentoalveolar or trauma to the mandible and maxilla
CT scan
What type of radiograph should be taken for...
- Detailed 3 dimensional view of the facial skeleton and soft tissue
- Good for maxillofacial trauma, severe infection, maxillofacial pathology, implant planning, etc.
Assessment in SOAP note
What has the following characteristics?
- A summary of your findings
- Differential diagnosis can be included in this section
- E.g. 30 y/o M who presented with pain associated with #3. The patient is being treated for asthma, but is controlled with albuterol
Plan in SOAP note
What has the following characteristics?
- Stepwise treatment for the patient
- Include type of anesthesia
- E.g. the plan is to extract #3 under local anesthesia
NO! It is a consult, NOT clearance
Do we get clearance from medical doctors to go forward with a treatment?
True
T/F: If it isn't document, it didn't happen
Clinical documentation
What has the following characteristics?
- Critical for delivering high-quality, safe, and efficient healthcare It
- Supports patient care, communication, legal compliance, reimbursement, and risk management
- Ensures continuity of care, informed decision- making, and prevention of medical errors
- Facilitates communication among providers
Clinical documentation
What has the following characteristics?
- Patients have access: Respectful, accurate, and objective documentation is expected
- Legal evidence of care provided and helps defend against malpractice claims
- Justifies billed services and supports claims approval by payers
- Provides a clear trail of clinical decisions and actions, safeguarding against audits and legal scrutiny
New Patient History and Physical Note
What type of note?
- To be completed at initial visit (150 exam completion in UG clinics) to TUSDM clinics including consultation visits to specialty departments.
Emergency Procedure Note
What type of note?
- To be completed for patients who are new to TUSDM (do not have established providers) and are having a procedure performed. Details of the procedure may be recorded under the section "Record of Procedure". This template includes components of both the New Patient note and the Procedure Note.
Procedure Note
What type of note?
- To be completed when a procedure is performed on an established patient who has already had a New Patient note completed. Details of the procedure may be recorded under the section "Record of Procedure".
Follow Up Note
What type of note?
- To be completed during follow up visits after a procedure or other situations outside of those outlined in the above templates. This template is in the SOAP format.
"Record of Procedure"
A ________ is found in either Procedure Note or Emergency Procedure Note. This is where you document what you did during a particular procedure
- Disclosure of information
- Patient competency
- Voluntary decision-making
- Reasonable alternatives with risks
- Assessment of understanding
- Consent involves a discussion of the risks, benefits, and alternatives of a procedure
What are the five elements of informed consent?
Time Out
What has the following characteristics?
- To be completed before all irreversible procedures
- The individual signing the time out must see you identify the tooth with an instrument and obtain the patients agreement
Periapical curette
ID the tool (yellow arrow):
No. 9 Molt periosteal elevator
ID the tool (orange arrow):
No. 9 Molt Periosteal Elevator
What is typically one of the first instruments used when starting an extraction?
Periapical curette
What is typically one of the last instruments used after an extraction?
Minnesota retractor
ID the tool:
Bone file
ID the tool (orange arrow):
Root picks
ID the tool (yellow arrow):
Seldin Retractor
ID the tool (blue arrow):
Syringe
ID the tool (blue arrow):
Scalpel Handle
ID the tool (pink arrow):
#15
What number scalpel blades is most commonly used in dentistry?
Hemostat
What tool should you use to connect a #15 blade to a scalpel handle?
- Hold blade handle in gloved hand
- Grasp dull side of blade with needle driver
- Align beveled end of blade with beveled edge of handle
- Slide blade onto handle end until it engages with a "click"
How do you attach a surgical blade?
"Sweetheart" tongue retractor
- Common for procedures under anesthesia
ID the tool:
Bishop retractor (cheek and tongue retractor)
ID the tool:
Side cutting rongeur (can cut bone)
ID the tool:
End cutting rongeur (can cut bone/smooth it down)
ID the tool:
Suture Scissors
ID the tool (blue arrow):
Needle holder
ID the tool (pink arrow):
Tissue forceps
ID the tool:
Small curved hemostat
ID the tool:
Small straight elevator (used 1st and helps make teeth mobile)
ID the tool (blue arrow):
Large straight elevator (helps make teeth mobile)
ID the tool (pink arrow):
- Blade
- Shank
- Handle
What are the parts of a straight elevator:
- As type 1 LEVER and WEDGE
- Wedge first, then lever
What type of simple machine is the straight elevator?
Apical
What direction of pressure do you apply with the straight elevator?
Cryer Elevators OR East / West Elevators
*Uses a wheel and axel mechanics
ID the tools:
Miller elevators
ID the tools:
Crane pick
ID the tool:
Universal Maxillary Extraction Forceps (#150)
ID the tool:
Universal Mandibular Extraction Forceps (#151)
ID the tool:
- Beak
- Hinge
- Handle
What are the components of a forceps? (3)
Root Tip Forceps (286) /Bayonet forceps
ID the tool:
Straight Maxillary Anterior Forceps (#1)
ID the tool:
Cowhorn Forceps #23
*used for furcation (esp. mandibular molars)
ID the tool:
Ash Forceps (English Style)
*used for bicuspids/anterior teeth
ID the tool:
Proximators
*used to make space for elevator use & retractora
ID the tool:
Proximators
*used to make space for elevator use & retractora
ID the tools:
Hall Drill
*lots of torque, thick bone
ID the tool:
Lower risk of air emphysema
What is the benefit of using a Hall drill vs. a traditional handpiece?
- Plain Gut
- Chromic Gut
- Vicryl
What are 3 types of absorbable suture material?
E - this is absorbable
All of the following are types of non-absorbable suture material EXCEPT:
A. Silk
B. Polypropylene
C. Polyester
D. Nylon
E. Gut
Chromic gut
What suture material do we use at TUFTS?
Thinner
The numbers of a suture material denote the thickness of the
material. A higher numbers mean _________ material
Chromic gut
What type of suture material?
- Absorbable suture material
- Derived from bovine intestine with chromic salts to slow absorption (vs plain gut)
- 6-10 days of tensile strength
- Most commonly used intraoral suture
Vicryl
What type of suture material?
- Absorbable braided synthetic material
- Holds tensile strength for ~14 -21 days
Plain Gut
Which absorbable suture absorbs the quickest?
- Plain Gut
- Chromic Gut
- Vicryl
Vicryl
Which absorbable suture absorbs the slowest?
- Plain Gut
- Chromic Gut
- Vicryl
Maxillary
In terms of chair position, you should put the seat higher and a more reclined position when extracting ______ teeth
Mandibular
In terms of chair position, you should put the seat lower and a more upright position when extracting ______ teeth
Left
When doing an extraction, if you are right handed, you should stand to the front and to the _____ side of the patient
Right
When doing an extraction, if you are left handed, you should stand to the front and to the _____ side of the patient
Simple extraction: D7140
ID the procedure:
- Extraction, erupted tooth or exposed root (elevation, and/or forcep removal)... routine removal of tooth structure, minor smoothing of socket bone and closure as necessary
Surgical extraction: D7210
ID the procedure:
- Requiring removal of bone and/or sectioning of tooth, and including elevation of mucoperiosteal flap if indicated
Circumferentially
For a simple extraction, detach soft tissue off of the tooth ___________