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what are the 4 pillars of public health?
assessment, policy development, assurance, and research (throughout)
assessment: monitor health and diagnose/investigate
policy development: inform, educate, and empower peoples; mobilize community partnerships; develop policies and plans in support of health
assurance: enforce laws, link peoples to services, and evaluate effectiveness
research: strive towards new insights and innovative solutions
what is the epidemiology triangle?
the interaction between the agent, host, and environment
what is healthmap?
a 24/7 monitoring platform that compiles news reports, sources, and discussions to create a map of current infectious disease outbreaks
dr william farr
a london physician during the industrial revolution; developed the concept of surveillance
dr john snow
doctor in london; studied cholera and determined that it came from water
responsible for the removal of the water from the broad street well
epidemiology
the study of the distribution and determinants of health-related states or events in populations; the study of disease outbreaks
what is the goal of the epidemiologist?
to break at least one of the sides of the epidemiology triangle; breaking the connection between the environment, host, and agent
what are the two strains of ebola that we focus on in this course?
O. zairense and O. bundibugyoense
what does ebola infection cause?
hemorrhagic fever; vomiting, diarrhea, muscle pain, and weakness (with very nonspecific symptoms aside from the severe fever)
how is ebola typically treated?
with fluids; attempt to maintain blood pressure and use antivirals if available
what were the sociocultural ramifications of the 2014 ebola outbreak?
a reduction in healthcare services, loss in GDP (due to unemployment/shutdown of jobs/services), upheaval of familial structures with loss, and loss of education
what is the general timeline of the 2014-2015 EVD outbreak?
first case in dec 2013 (guinea) → cases spread to liberia, sierra leone, nigeria, and senegal by september 2014 → EVD spreads to the US, spain, and mali → liberia, guinea, sierra leone, mali, and the UK are all declared EVD free by the end of 2015
what were the scientific outcomes of the 2014 EVD outbreak?
6 new rapid diagnostic tools were developed (as opposed to traditional testing methods, which took 3 days), the VSV-EBOV ebola vaccine was proven effective, and more medical professionals were trained/deployed
what was significant about the two 2018 EVD outbreaks?
the first outbreak was contained rapidly; the second outbreak was an entirely different strain and occurred across the country (northeast, near to uganda)
ring vaccination
a method of treatment where you vaccinate the contacts of an infected persons, then vaccinate the second level of contacts as well
utilized in the first 2018 EVD outbreak
what were the types of barriers to EVD response?
cultural → burial traditions that result in greater harm
distrust → avoidance of treatment centers
fear → widespread migration that increases disease zone
stability/violence → political turmoil inhibits activities and increases risk of intervention
governmental cooperation → limited access/resources and increase in response times
what were the significant outcomes of the second-largest ebola outbreak?
increase in ring vaccination, approval of rVSV-ZEBOV vaccination (FDA approval), two useful antibody treatments (REN-EB3 & mAb114)
what are the challenges of the 2026 EVD outbreak?
limited health infrastructure, ongoing conflict (leading to security issues), violence against healthcare workers, frequent migration, fundamental mistrust of government officials
what are the consequences of the 2026 EVD outbreak?
increased hunger and malnourishment (which creates a positive feedback loop for infection), potential development of vaccines for new strain (still in phase 1)
miasma
the idea that illnesses were conferred through “bad air” and toxic vapors
what are physical methods of control?
temperature changes, radiation, and filtration
what are the chemical methods of control?
germicides and antibiotics
decontamination
removes or reduces microbial populations to render an object safe for handling
sterilization
the process by which ALL microbes (and endospores) are removed/killed
disinfection
the process by which microbial numbers are reduced—commonly used for food, surfaces, and external medical equipment
refrigeration
used for preserving food and samples; slows the growth of microbes
freezing (0°C)
used for storing and preserving food/samples; slows the growth of microbes
for which control methods is heat used?
sterilization or decontamination
autoclaving
the process by which an autoclave machine uses heat, steam, and pressure to sterilize media and equipmemt
kills endospores!
pasteurization
the heating of liquids (below boiling temp) to reduce microbial populations
boiling
the process by which a liquid is heated to its boiling point to eliminate most pathogenic microbes
does not kill endospores
radiation
the emission or transmission of energy in the form of waves or particles through space
ionizing radiation
high-energy radiation with the ability to knock electrons from atoms; gamma and x-ray radiation
non-ionizing radiation
lower-energy radiation that lacks the ability to “knock” electrons; ultraviolet rays
has the capacity to mutate DNA (due to the formation of thymine dimers)
how does non-ionizing radiation differ from ionizing radiation?
it cannot pass through packaging
it is often used in wastewater treatment
it cannot kill microbes
filtration
a physical control methods where microbes pass through microbe-capturing filters (ex: HEPA filter & Lifestraws)
microbiocidal
something that causes microbe death
microbiostatic
something that inhibits microbial growth
germicides
chemical compounds used for chemical control of microbes
disinfectants
germicides used to treat inanimate objects
antiseptics
germicides used to treat living tissue
what are the different types of disinfectants?
detergents
alcohols
aldehydes
phenols
halogens
peroxygens
ethylene oxide
what are the different types of antiseptics?
detergents
alcohols
diluted phenols
diluted halogens
diluted peroxygens
why are endospores difficult to kill?
they are dormant structures that can revert to vegetative state once favorable growth conditions are restored
what is an alternate way to eliminate endospores (other than autoclaving)?
sporicides or hydrogen peroxides
how are protozoans controlled?
through a variety of methods that change according to their life cycle
how are viruses controlled?
by using gluteraldehyde-based detergents for enveloped viruses & chlorine-based agents for naked viruses
which kind of microbes do antibiotics not work on?
parasites, fungi, and viruses
antivirals
drugs that treat infection but doesn’t necessarily cure it; commonly target replication steps in the viral cycle (microbiostatic)
antifungals
agents that typically target the fungal cell wall, plasma membranes, and nucleic acid synthesis
ergosterol
a common target of antifungal drugs; a steroid found in the fungal cell wall
why are antiprotozoan and antihelminthic drugs hard to develop?
because protozoans and eukaryotes and they both have complex life cycles
antimalarial drugs
quinine, chloroquine, and primaquine
antihelminthic drugs
praziquantel
antiprotozoan drugs
metronizadole
antibiotics that target cell wall synthesis
beta-lactams and glycopeptides; usually bactericidal
beta-lactam antimicrobials
penicillins, cephalosporins, and carbapenems; contains a four-sided beta-lactam ring that prevents PG cross-linking
glycopeptide drugs
vancomycin
vancomycin
no beta-lactam ring, disrupts PG synthesis, can be used against MRSA; most gram-negatives aren’t affected
can produce an extreme reaction known as “red man syndrome”
antibiotics that target cell membranes
lipopeptides and polypeptides antibiotics
daptomycin
targets the cytoplasmic membrane; causes the loss of ions and lysis
cannot penetrate gram-negative bacteria
polymyxin and colistin
targets the outer membrane; interacts with the LPS
only effective against gram-negative bacteria
antibiotics that target nucleic acids
quinolones; usually bactericidal
quinolones
ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin
both target DNA replication enzymes
antibiotics that target metabolic pathways
sulfa drugs (sulfonamides) and trimethoprim
sulfonamides
competitve inhibitors of folic acid production because they resemble PABA (a natural building block for folic acid)
trimethoprim
an antibiotic that targets folic acid synthesis; used synergistically with sulfonamides
antibiotics that target ribosomes
macrolides, aminoglycosides, and tetracyclines (all generally bacteriostatic)
transpeptidase
an enzyme that catalyzes the transfer of amino acid residues or peptide bonds, especially during bacterial cell wall synthesis
what are the 3 mechanisms by which AMR occurs?
alteration of drug target
bacterial target mutates and drug is no longer effective (ex, PBP → PBP2a)
drug inactivation
acquisition of new genes that inactivate drug (ex. B-lactamases)
reduction in drug concentrations inside cell
development of efflux pumps or mutation of porins (to prevent drug entry)
what is HGT?
horizontal gene transfer
what are the 3 ways that HGT occurs in bacteria?
transformation
taking up new DNA from environment
transduction
genes transported by bacteriophages
conjugation
sharing DNA through physical connection
which human behaviours have contributed to a rise in AMR?
unregulated antibiotic use in developing countries
noncompliance with dosing and prescriptions
development of healthcare settings (which are perfect places for microbes to thrive)
antimicrobials in animal feed
ingestion of meat contaminated with resistant microbes
introduction of manure-contamianted water and manure-based fertilizers into food chain
how can humans respond to AMR?
personal methods
infection prevention and prescription compliance
healthcare methods
monitoring resistant infections
appropriate antibiotic use
agricultural methods
responsible antibiotic use
responsible waste management
science/research
support of basic research
support of drug development and drug trials
what are the 6 urgent drug-resistant bacterial threats to health?
hospital-onset CRE
hospital-onset Carbapenem-resistant Actinobacter
clinical cases of C. auris
hospital-onset MRSA
hospital-onset VRE
hospital-onset ESBL-producing Enterobacterales
hospital-onset MDR Pseudomonas aeruginosa
how does AMR spread?
through random genetic mutation OR the acquisition of new genes (HGT)
neglected tropical diseases
dengue (vector and microbe)
chagas disease (vector and microbe)
leishmaniases (vector and microbe)
lymphatic filariasis (vector and microbe)
what is the global impact of dengue?
why has dengue spread so much?
because of climate change
why do NTDs persist?
lack of access to clean water, inadequate sanitation, close proximity to vectors, limited healthcare
is it possible to eliminate chagas disease? why?
no, because there are greater than 100 species of triatomine bug that carry T. cruzi
what cell type is attacked in leishmaniases?
visceral macrophages
what are the 3 forms of leishmaniases?
visceral, cutaneous, and mucocutaneous
how does lymphatic filariasis cause disfigurement?
since the adult worms invade the lymphatic system, their reproduction leads to impairment of the drainage system and the accumulation of fluid
what did END7 hope to accomplish?
it sought to raise awareness and funds to eliminate 7 NTDs by 2020
what are the diseases in END7?
LF, trachoma, onchocerciasis, soil-transmitted helminthiases, schistosomiasis
who are at the highest risk for NTDs?
women and children
what is significant about dengue infection?
if you are infected by one serotype, you’ll have lifelong immunity. if you are then infected with a different serotype, then the resulting disease will be more severe
how does Aedes albopictus compare to Aedes aegypti?
albopictus are common in asia and can survive in colder temperatures; their eggs are often resistant to environmental conditions
what does dengue cause?
dengue hemorrhagic fever
what is significant about the dengue vaccine?
the tetravalent vaccine was effective about all 4 serotypes, but increased the risk of DHF in sero-negative people (which incr’d anti-vacc sentiment)
what are the two stages of chagas disease?
acute stage (fever, malaise, facial edema, may resolve spontaneously) and chronic stage (asymptomatic—transmittable—and symptomatic stage)
visceral leishmaniasis
most severe form; infects internal organs (often causing enlarged spleen/liver)
cutaneous leishmaniasis
most common form; infects macrophages that reside in the skin, causing skin lesions
mucocutaneous leishmaniasis
occurs when cutaneous leishmaniasis goes untreated; infected macrophages migrate to mucous membranes and cause disfigurement
what are the risk factors for leishmaniasis?
malnutrition, poor living conditions, climate change