P3 Exam 3 Practice Questions

Which of the following correctly describes a malignant tumor?
A. Grows slowly and does not invade nearby tissue
B. Is well-differentiated and organized
C. Grows quickly and can metastasize to other parts of the body
D. Is typically encapsulated and noncancerous

C

Which genetic mutation is true in the development of malignant tumors?
A. Oncogene turn off
B. Tumor suppressor gene turn off
C. DNA repair genes reduce cell growth
D. Cells with mutated genetics slow dividing

B

A 65-year-old patient with breast cancer presents with swelling in the right arm following lymph node removal. What is the most appropriate precaution during physical therapy?
A. Apply hot packs over the axilla
B. Take blood pressure on the right arm
C. Encourage compression sleeve use during activity
D. Elevate the limb below heart level

C

Which of the following is a common side effect of radiation therapy?
A. Hypotension
B. Skin irritation and fatigue
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Hypocalcemia

B

Cancer-related fatigue (CRF) is best described as:
A. Fatigue relieved by rest and improved nutrition
B. Fatigue directly related to low red blood cell count
C. A distressing, persistent sense of tiredness not proportional to activity
D. Fatigue that occurs only during chemotherapy

C

Which of the following cancers most commonly metastasizes to bone?
A. Colon, skin, thyroid
B. Breast, lung, prostate
C. Kidney, pancreas, stomach
D. Brain, liver, gallbladder

B

A patient undergoing hormone therapy for breast cancer reports hot flashes and vaginal dryness. These symptoms are most likely due to:
A. Estrogen suppression
B. Excess cortisol release
C. Chemotherapy toxicity
D. Thyroid hormone imbalance

A

During examination of a patient with metastatic bone cancer, which clinical sign should prompt immediate referral to the physician?
A. Fatigue after exercise
B. New onset or sudden increase in pain with weight bearing
C. Mild muscle soreness after therapy
D. Slight decrease in range of motion

B

A patient reports numbness and tingling in both feet following chemotherapy for cancer treatment.  Which physical therapy examination technique is most important to determine the effects of these symptoms?

A. Mobility screen
B. Gross motor screening
C. Vital signs/cardiopulmonary screening
D. Balance screening

D

Which nonspecific cluster of symptoms is more likely as a suspicion of cancer?

A. Left shoulder pain, diaphoresis (sweating), malaise
B. Shortness of breath, angina (chest pain), cyanosis
C. Headaches, sensitivity to light, nausea/vomiting
D. Fatigue, weight loss, pain with no known cause

D

A 60-year-old woman recently completed chemotherapy for breast cancer. She reports low energy but wants to improve her fitness. According to the American Cancer Society, what is the most appropriate initial exercise recommendation?

A. Begin high-intensity aerobic exercise 5 days/week

B. Perform moderate-intensity aerobic exercise totaling 150 minutes per week
C. Avoid exercise for 3 months post-treatment
D. Perform vigorous aerobic exercise only once weekly for 30 minutes

B

Rationale: 150–300 minutes/week of moderate intensity or 75–150 minutes of vigorous intensity is recommended, gradually increased post-treatment.

Which statement BEST describes exercise recommendations according to the American Cancer Society during active cancer treatment?

A. Patients should avoid exercise to conserve energy
B. Patients should continue previous activity levels regardless of fatigue
C. Patients should be as active as tolerated, based on type and stage of cancer

D. Exercise should only be performed under physical therapy supervision

C

 Rationale: Exercise is encouraged during treatment but must be individualized to tolerance, cancer type, and treatment status.

Which intervention has the STRONGEST evidence for reducing cancer-related fatigue?

A. Increased daily rest
B. Physical activity and exercise
C. High-dose corticosteroids
D. Elimination of all nonessential activity

B

Rationale: Physical activity is a key evidence-based strategy to reduce CRF.

For a patient experiencing cancer-related fatigue, which combination exercise program is most appropriate?

A. 5x/week resistance training only
B. 3x/week aerobic and 2x/week resistance training at moderate intensity
C. 5x/week vigorous intensity aerobic training
D. Daily stretching only

B

Rationale: Combination of aerobic (3x/week, 30 minutes) and resistance (2x/week, large muscle groups, moderate intensity) is optimal.

When designing an exercise program for a patient with bone metastases, which of the following is MOST important?

A. Avoid all exercise
B. Emphasize high-impact and resistive loading
C. Obtain medical clearance and avoid high-risk exercises based on lesion site
D. Focus exclusively on upper extremity strengthening

C

Which layer of the epidermis contains cells undergoing active mitosis?

A. Stratum basale
B. Stratum corneum
C. Stratum lucidum
D. Stratum granulosum

A

Which of the following best describes the role of keratin in the epidermis?

A. Provides pigment to protect against UV radiation
B. Contributes to waterproofing and mechanical strength
C. Facilitates immune defense in the epidermis
D. Produces vitamin D precursors

B

Melanin is produced by which type of cell?

A. Merkel cell
B. Keratinocyte
C. Melanocyte
D. Langerhans cell

C

Which of the following accurately describes the function of Langerhans cells in the skin?

A. Secrete keratin
B. Act as sensory receptors
C. Function as immune antigen-presenting cells
D. Produce melanin pigment

C

The dermis primarily consists of which type of connective tissue?

A. Dense irregular connective tissue
B. Loose areolar connective tissue only
C. Elastic cartilage
D. Fibrocartilage

A

The hypodermis primarily functions to:

A. Provide a barrier against microorganisms
B. Anchor the skin to underlying structures and provide insulation
C. Produce keratin and sebum
D. Support capillary loops for thermoregulation

B

Which of the following contributes most directly to body temperature regulation?

A. Sebaceous glands
B. Arrector pili muscles
C. Sweat glands
D. Langerhans cells

C

Which sweat glands are primarily responsible for thermoregulatory sweating?

A. Eccrine glands
B. Apocrine glands
C. Sebaceous glands
D. Ceruminous glands

A

Which vitamin is synthesized by the skin upon exposure to UV light?

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin K

C

Which of the following receptors in the skin detects light touch?

A. Pacinian corpuscles
B. Meissner’s corpuscles
C. Ruffini endings
D. Free nerve endings

B

The primary mechanism of heat loss through the skin during exercise is:

A. Radiation

B. Conduction
C. Convection
D. Evaporation

D

When performing an integumentary screening, which finding would be most consistent with poor perfusion?

A. Warm, pink skin with quick capillary refill
B. Pallor and delayed capillary refill greater than 2 seconds
C. Dry, flaking skin with normal temperature
D. Erythematous area that blanches easily

B

Which integumentary change is most commonly associated with normal aging?

A. Increased oil production and moist skin
B. Thickened epidermis and faster wound healing
C. Decreased collagen and elastin causing wrinkles and fragile skin
D. Increased melanin production causing widespread pigmentation

C

A therapist applies pressure to a patient’s anterior tibia and notes that an indentation remains for several seconds before slowly returning to normal. Which term best describes this finding?

A. Non-pitting edema
B. Pitting edema
C. Erythema
D. Cyanosis

B

A 76-year-old patient presents with erythema and edema on the lower leg that is painful to touch. The most likely integumentary condition is:

A. Venous insufficiency ulcer
B. Cellulitis
C. Arterial ulcer
D. Contact dermatitis

B

A therapist notes mild redness around a healing incision that is closed with Steri-Strips and no drainage is present. What is the most appropriate action?

A. Remove the Steri-Strips and cleanse the wound
B. Document the findings and continue monitoring
C. Apply a warm compress to reduce redness
D. Notify the surgeon immediately

B

Which integumentary finding would warrant immediate referral to a physician?

A. Age spots on dorsal hands
B. Calloused heels in a runner
C. A mole with irregular borders and color variation
D. Dryness on elbows

C

A patient shows a flat, well-defined brown spot that measures 5 mm. Which lesion fits this description?
A. Papule
B. Macule
C. Nodule
D. Plaque

B

A flat area of hypopigmentation on the trunk is best described as:
A. Pustule
B. Patch
C. Vesicle
D. Squame

B

A firm lesion that is larger than a papule is a:
A. Nodule
B. Bulla
C. Plaque
D. Tumor

A

A fluid-filled lesion is:
A. Plaque
B. Vesicle
C. Macule
D. Ulcer

B

A patient with chronic handwashing presents with linear cracks on the fingertips. This describes:
A. Bulla
B. Fissure
C. Ulcer
D. Patch

B

A pustule contains:
A. Clear serous fluid
B. Blood
C. Purulent material
D. Air

C

The Blanch Test checks:
A. Capillary refill
B. Cellulitis depth
C. Pressure ulcer staging
D. UV exposure damage

A

A burn that destroys epidermis and dermis, with no pain at the center, is:
A. First degree
B. Second degree partial thickness
C. Third degree
D. Superficial partial thickness

C

Using the Rule of Nines, burns on the entire right arm and anterior trunk equal:
A. 18 percent
B. 22.5 percent
C. 27 percent
D. 36 percent

C

The most common early cause of death after severe thermal burns is:
A. Heart failure
B. Kidney failure
C. Hypovolemic shock
D. Kidney stones

C

UV radiation damages skin because it:
A. Breaks collagen only
B. Damages DNA
C. Thickens sebaceous glands
D. Causes fungal growth

B

A stage 3 pressure ulcer involves:
A. Intact skin with redness
B. Partial thickness loss
C. Full thickness loss to subcutaneous fat
D. Bone exposure

C

Impetigo presents with:
A. Honey colored crusts
B. Deep nodules
C. Large bullae with necrosis
D. Painful ulcers

A

Cellulitis is often caused by:
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Candida albicans
D. HPV

B

Acne vulgaris results from:
A. Viral infection of keratinocytes
B. Follicular keratin plug, excess sebum, bacterial infection
C. Autoimmune attack of melanocytes
D. Fungal overgrowth

B

Tinea corporis usually presents with:
A. Central clearing and raised borders
B. Honey crusts
C. Firm nodules
D. Blue discoloration

A

A viral skin infection that produces grouped vesicles on an erythematous base is:
A. Herpes simplex
B. Psoriasis
C. Seborrheic dermatitis
D. Tinea pedis

A

Contact dermatitis develops from:
A. Bacterial infection
B. Allergen or irritant exposure
C. Viral replication
D. Loss of melanocytes

B

The atopic triad includes asthma, allergic rhinitis, and:
A. Seborrheic dermatitis
B. Psoriasis
C. Eczema
D. Impetigo

C

First-line pharmacologic management for eczema often includes:
A. Oral antivirals
B. Topical corticosteroids
C. Oral antifungals
D. Biologic injectables

B

Psoriasis typically presents with:
A. Honey crusts
B. Silvery scales on erythematous plaques
C. Central clearing
D. Large bullae

B

The ABCDE rule for melanoma includes:
A. Alkalinity, Base, Color, Depth, Edge
B. Asymmetry, Border, Color, Diameter, Evolution
C. Arc, Bulge, Contour, Discoloration, Edema
D. Area, Break, Change, Density, Elevation

B

A patient with COPD demonstrates bluish lips during exertion. This finding suggests:

A. Jaundice

B. Cyanosis

C. Macule

D. Patch

B

A PT notes yellowing of the sclera during evaluation. This indicates:

A. Jaundice

B. Erythema

C. Psoriasis

D. Impetigo

A

A pressure ulcer over the sacrum shows nonblanchable redness. This is:

A. Stage 1

B. Stage 2

C. Stage 3

D. Stage 4

A

A heel wound shows exposed tendon. This is:

A. Stage 1

B. Stage 2

C. Stage 3

D. Stage 4 

D

A patient in the ICU with prolonged immobility is most likely to develop a pressure ulcer on the:

A. Abdomen

B. Occiput

C. Forearm

D. Anterior thigh

B

A patient presents with a painful, warm, spreading area on the lower leg. The area has indistinct borders. This fits:
A. Psoriasis
B. Cellulitis
C. Seborrheic dermatitis
D. Fungal rash

B

A wrestler presents with a ring-shaped rash on the shoulder. PT should suspect:
A. Impetigo
B. Tinea corporis
C. Contact dermatitis
D. Acne

B

A PT notes multiple vesicles around the lips during a viral flare. This finding is linked to:
A. HSV
B. Varicella zoster
C. Ringworm
D. Impetigo

A

A high school athlete has worsening erythematous plaques on elbows with silvery scales. The condition is:
A. Psoriasis
B. Seborrheic dermatitis
C. Eczema
D. Cellulitis

A

A patient with eczema scratches often. This increases the risk for:
A. Secondary bacterial infection
B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Melanoma
D. Parvovirus

A

During wound care, the PT sees thick honey crusts over superficial erosions. The patient is a child. This suggests:
A. Impetigo
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Acne
D. Tinea pedis

A

A sacral wound with subcutaneous fat exposed but no muscle visible is:
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4

C

A PT observes a well-defined pearly nodule with telangiectasia on a patient’s face. PT should advise:
A. Referral for suspected basal cell carcinoma
B. Compression for venous insufficiency
C. Moisturizer for xerosis
D. Antifungal treatment

A

A patient with a known history of psoriasis reports joint pain in hands and feet. PT should consider:
A. Post viral rash
B. Psoriatic arthritis
C. Allergic contact dermatitis
D. Viral exanthem

B

A teenager with inflammatory acne has open comedones on the nose. A comedone is best described as:
A. Vesicle
B. Follicle plugged with keratin and sebum
C. Ulcer filled with pus
D. Erythrematous plaque

B

A PT evaluates a patient with a chronic bulla on the heel caused by poorly fitted shoes. This lesion contains:
A. Serous fluid
B. Purulent drainage
C. Blood only
D. Air pockets

A

Which physiologic role of the skeletal system helps maintain blood calcium during exercise?
A. Hematopoiesis
B. Mineral storage
C. Lipid storage
D. Shock absorption

B

Which component makes up the majority of the organic matrix of bone?
A. Hydroxyapatite
B. Collagen type I
C. Calcium phosphate
D. Calcium carbonate

B

Which mineral complex provides bone with compressive strength?
A. Hydroxyapatite
B. Fibronectin
C. Elastin
D. Keratin

A

Which bone cell originates from hematopoietic stem cells and resorbs bone?
A. Osteoblast
B. Osteocyte
C. Osteoclast
D. Fibroblast

C

Which hormone increases serum calcium by stimulating osteoclast activity?
A. Calcitonin
B. Parathyroid hormone
C. Estrogen
D. Growth hormone

B

Which statement applies Wolf’s Law in PT practice?
A. Bone weakens when exposed to high-impact loads
B. Bone adapts to the mechanical stress placed on it
C. Bone growth stops after adolescence
D. Bone responds the same to all forces

B

Which genetic defect causes achondroplasia?
A. FGFR3 gain-of-function mutation
B. Type I collagen deficiency
C. Vitamin D deficiency
D. Growth hormone deficiency

A

Which finding is most consistent with osteogenesis imperfecta?
A. Overgrowth of dense bone
B. Blue sclera and frequent fractures
C. Failure of endochondral ossification
D. Infection of the metaphysis

B

Which feature best describes osteopetrosis?
A. Increased osteoclast activity
B. Decreased bone mass
C. Failure of osteoclast bone resorption
D. Excessive osteoblast activity

C

Which pathogen most commonly causes pyogenic osteomyelitis?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Borrelia burgdorferi
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Which site is most often affected in tuberculous osteomyelitis?
A. Femoral neck
B. Vertebrae
C. Pelvis
D. Distal radius

B

Which manifestation is typical of suppurative arthritis?
A. Slow onset and mild swelling
B. Rapid onset with purulent effusion
C. Rash followed by neurologic deficits
D. Chronic joint space narrowing only

B

Which organism causes Lyme arthritis?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Borrelia burgdorferi
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Candida albicans

B

Which trigger best explains alpha-gal syndrome?
A. Bacterial tick infection
B. Lone Star tick bite causing IgE production to a carbohydrate in its saliva
C. Mosquito bite introducing a protein antigen
D. Gluten exposure in the gut

B

Which finding suggests avascular necrosis of the femoral head?
A. Early morning stiffness
B. Progressive collapse of subchondral bone
C. Joint space widening
D. Eosinophilia

B

Which is a major primary cause of osteoporosis?
A. Prolonged immobilization
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Postmenopausal estrogen loss
D. Corticosteroid therapy

C

Which diagnostic tool best predicts fracture risk in osteoporosis?
A. Serum calcium
B. Plain X-ray
C. DEXA scan
D. MRI

C

Which medication reduces bone resorption in osteoporosis?
A. Prednisone
B. Bisphosphonates
C. Beta blocker
D. Statin

B

Which deficiency most commonly leads to osteomalacia?
A. Iron
B. Vitamin D
C. Sodium
D. Magnesium

B

Which lesion characterizes osteomalacia?
A. Excess mineralized bone
B. Unmineralized osteoid
C. Purulent bone destruction
D. Dense woven bone

B

Which feature best describes Paget’s disease?
A. Hyperplastic osteoclasts and disorganized bone
B. Loss of trabecular bone only
C. Reduction in cortical thickness
D. Infection of cancellous bone

A

Which spinal curvature describes excessive thoracic convexity?
A. Lordosis
B. Scoliosis
C. Kyphosis
D. Neutral spine

C

Which fracture occurs when the bone bends and cracks on one side only?
A. Comminuted fracture
B. Spiral fracture
C. Greenstick fracture
D. Impacted fracture

C

Which is the first step in normal bone repair?
A. Soft callus formation
B. Hematoma formation
C. Remodeling
D. Hard callus formation

B

Which factor most delays bone healing?
A. Adequate blood supply
B. Infection at the fracture site
C. Proper immobilization
D. Youth

B

Which injury describes a partial loss of joint contact?
A. Dislocation
B. Sprain
C. Subluxation
D. Strain

C

Which structure is damaged in a sprain?
A. Tendon
B. Ligament
C. Muscle
D. Bone cortex

B

Which finding is common in Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome?
A. Rigid joints
B. Hyperextensible skin and joint instability
C. Early aortic rupture only
D. Subchondral sclerosis

B

Which mutation causes Marfan Syndrome?
A. FGFR3
B. FBN1
C. COL1A1
D. HLA-B27

B

Which primary cancer most often metastasizes to bone?
A. Thyroid
B. Breast
C. Colon
D. Pancreas

B