Goodwin Exam 3 (copy)

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Last updated 12:54 AM on 4/23/26
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98 Terms

1
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From what embryonic tissue do the gonads arise from?

intermediate mesoderm

2
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What must be necessary for the gonad to differentiate into a compete organ?

Somatic supporting cell progenitors

3
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What gene is necessary to differentiate into a human male and where is it found?

SRY gene, carried on Y chromosome

4
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Just after birth, it is discovered that a male child has only 1 testicle in his scrotum. What is the likely explanation? Where should you look?

Cryptorchid testes, between the deep and superficial rings of the inguinal canals

5
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How are male gonads different from female gonads in terms of the position of the germ cells and why is the functionally important?

Female: female germ cells are located near the outer ovarian cortex

  • allows follicles to mature sequentially and release eggs from surface (ovulation thru capsule)

Male: male germ cells are in the deep seminiferous tubules of testes

  • large-scale sperm production



6
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After unsuccessful attempts to conceive, an imaging study reveals a large notch in the superior aspect of the uterus. What is the likely cause?

Ducts don’t fuse

7
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Compare and contrast male and female gametogenesis in terms of when gametes are produced, matured and released as well as the numbers of gametes per meiotic event.

Males start much later than females but are continuous, females start in utero but stop

8
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Where are male gametes produced, stored, and what route to they take to be released?

Seminferous tubules, epididymis, spongy urethra

9
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Describe the hormonal regulation of sperm production including the hypothalamic, and pituitary hormones and the cells they work on.

  • HGH supports development of spermatogonia

  • FSH works on Sertoli cells

    • support developing sperm

  • LSH works on leydig cells to produce testosterone


10
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What glands adds solutions to the male ejaculate? Which adds the most? What are the functions of the molecules in seamen?

Seminal vesicle, prostate, and mobile urethra glands (SV)

11
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How does the autonomic nervous system regulate erection and ejaculation?

Parasympathetic system drives erection, sympathetic is ejaculation

12
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When and where are female gametes produced?

Start production in utero, won’t finish until puberty

13
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Describe the hormonal regulation of oocyte maturation including the hypothalamic, and pituitary hormones and the cells they work on.

FSH stimulates follicles, LH stimulates ovulation 

14
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How does the maturation of the follicle affect the endometrial lining of the uterus?

First follicular growth causes proliferative phase, follicle becomes corpus luteum and drives secretory phase  


15
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Why is it important to regularly monitor cervical tissue?

Neoplasia and HPV

16
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What hormone indicates that an embryo has implanted into the uterus?

Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)

17
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What process creates the three germ layers of the embryo?

gastrulation

18
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A woman believes she is pregnant and complains of edema and vaginal bleeding. Results show very high levels of hCG but no sign of an embryo. What would explain these results?

Molar pregnancy

19
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Are chorionic villi derived from the mother of the fetus?

No, derived from fetus

20
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What does the trophoblast develop into?

Placenta

21
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Does maternal blood ever mix with fetal blood?

No

22
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What happens to the corpus luteum if implantation occurs?

CL is maintained and becomes CL of pregnancy

23
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What part of the blastocyst becomes the amnionic membrane and the embryo?

ICM

24
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Where can an embryo implant?

Anywhere in the abdominal cavity

25
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What structure of the developing embryo is the earliest recognizable feature of a normal pregnancy using ultrasound? When is this visible?

Yolk sac, 17 days

26
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What hormone regulates the contractions of the uterus?

Oxytocin

27
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What kind of capillaries are in the glomerulus?

Fenestrated

28
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What cells control the Filtration slit diaphragm?

Juxtaglomerular cells (extramesangial cells- generating paracrine signaling controlling GFR)


29
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In what portion of the nephron does the majority of reabsorption occur?

PCT

30
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What is the relationship of filtration, reabsorption, secretion, and excretion?

E = F-R+S

31
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What is the normal range of kidney filtration and why is it so high?

180L -> getting rid of harmful substances

32
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What is GRF and why is it important clinically?

How much kidneys are filtering

33
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Compare Filtration, Secretion, and Excretion

F- how much fluid filtered through kidneys, S- from afferent arteriole to kidney tubule, E- to bladder

34
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What type of epithelium does the bladder have?

Transitional

35
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What cell types are involved with micturition?

Smooth muscle cells, neurons

36
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What happens to GFR if there is a significant loss of blood volume?

Goes to zero

37
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What portion of the nephron has the highest osmolarity?

Loop of Henle

38
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What portion of the nephron has the lowest osmolarity

DCT

39
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Urine osmolarities can vary between 50 -1200 mOsM. Why?

Reabsorbing water or ions

40
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What hormone regulates the rate of water reabsorption in the distal tubule and collecting ducts?

ADH

41
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How are cells of the distal nephron able to respond so quickly to hormonal stimulation?

The proteins are already made

42
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What hormone plays a critical role in sodium reabsorption and how is it regulated?

Aldosterone (ang2)

43
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What are the effects of Ang II on blood pressure?

Inc cardiac output, vasoconstriction of arterioles

44
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What are the effects of ANP on the renal system?

Opposite of ADH

45
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What hormone regulates potassium?

Aldosterone

46
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What are some differences between Aldosterone and Antidiuretic Hormone/AVP/Vasopressin?

aldosterone: adrenal cortex steroid, retains sodium and water

ADH: posterior pituitary peptide, acts directly on AQPs to retain water


47
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Can you die from drinking too much water?

Yes

48
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How do the cardiovascular and renal systems work together to regulate BP and fluid balance?

Ang-ren-aldo system, inputs from baroreceptors

49
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What is diabetes insipidus and what is its cause?

Overproduction of unconcentrated urine, lack of ADH

50
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What is the body’s primary buffer and how does it relate acid/base balance and CO2 concentration?

Bicarbonate- produced when CO2 goes into solution, move CO2 out of body

51
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What is the cause of respiratory acidosis?

COPD, drugs

52
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What is the cause of respiratory alkalosis?

Hyperventilation, too basic

53
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What are the two types of dialysis for people who are in stage four kidney failure?

hemodialysis, CAPD

54
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Why is an A/V fistula needed for hemodialysis?

Veins are week and will collapse if used too often

55
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What is the difference between innate and adaptive immunity?

Born w/ innate, have to acquire adaptive

56
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Where are the palatine tonsils and what do they contain?

Large tonsils visible on back of throat

  • contain lymphatic tissue


57
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What are three functions of the spleen and what goes on in the red and white pulp

Destroys old RBCs, produces activated lymphocytes, stores platelets

  • Red- breaking down bad RBCs,

  • white- germinal centers, specialized B cell proliferation for antibody secretion, holds platelets


58
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How are germinal centers of the spleen different than other lymphatic organs?

Central artery, no other germinal centers have the central artery w/ periarterial t-cell sheath

59
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What is the main function of the thymus and what happens to it throughout the lifespan?

T- lymphocyte production and maturation

  • atrophies into fat


60
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Where are the germinal centers of the lymph node?

In the cortex

61
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How do lymphocytes directly enter the deep cortex of lymph nodes?

High Endothelial venules

62
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How does lymph fluid enter the lymph node?

  1. Afferent vessels, postcapillary vessels


63
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How does lymph fluid leave?

Efferent lymph vessels

64
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How is lymph fluid moved back into the circulatory system?

Enters into subclavian veins near the heart

65
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Compare and contrast B cells and plasma cells.

B cells are precursors to antibody-producing cells, plasma cells are activated B cells that function as antibody factories

66
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What is the difference between a Cytotoxic T cell and a Helper T cell?

Cytotoxic T cells directly kill infected or tumor cells, Helper T cells coordinate immune response by activating B and Cytotoxic T cells


67
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What type of antibody is the most common and can cross the placenta, providing immunological protection to the fetus?

IgG

68
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___provide lifetime immunity to specific antigens. They can become pathological and secrete high levels of antibodies or even become a form of bone cancer called multiple myeloma.

Plasma Cells

69
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What are the two ways that T cells can kill infected or cancerous cells?

Perforin/granzyme pathway or Fas/FasL pathway

70
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What role does the MHC protein play in immune reactions?

Present peptide antigens on cell surfaces for T-cell recognition

71
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A patient is accidentally given the wrong blood type. Describe what happens

Immune system will attack foreign red blood cells

72
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What is an allergy?

Over release of IgE

73
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Why do hypersensitive reactions get worse with each exposure?

Sensitization- more IgE each time, faster and stronger response

74
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What is CAR T therapy and how are they generated?

T cells engineered to express synthetic (CARs) receptors that destroy tumor cells

75
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How does a bacterial infection differ from a viral infection? Will antibiotics work?

Antibiotics will not work on viral infections

76
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What part of the pituitary gland is derived from the roof of the mouth?

  • Anterior Pituitary


77
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The pituitary sits in the ____. If it grows out of this structure, it would grow into the ____.

  • sphenoid bone (sella turcica)

  • optic chiasm


78
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A prolactinoma is a cancer of what type of cells in the adenohypophysis?

  • lactotrophs (aka mammotrophs)


79
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What hormones do the basophils of the pars distalis produce?

TSH, ACTH, FSH, LH

80
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Where are Herring bodies and what do they contain?

  • located in the posterior pituitary

  • stored ADH and oxytocin


81
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How could thyroid tissue be found under the tongue?

  • thyroid failed to descend during development


82
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What are the two primary cell types of the thyroid gland and what do they do?

  • follicular: T3/T4 production

  • parafollicular: calcitonin production


83
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What process takes place in the colloid of the thyroid?

  • tyrosine iodination (t3/t4 formation)


84
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What is the difference between T3 and T4?

number of iodines

85
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How can the cells of the parathyroid be distinguished from the cells of the thyroid?

  • thyroid- colloid-filled follicles

  • parathyroid- no follicles


86
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What do the Chief cells of the parathyroid produce?

PTH

87
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How does PTH increase blood calcium levels?

  • bone: increases osteoclast activity

  • kidney: increases Ca 2+ reabsorbtion, decreases phosphate

  • vitamin D activation: increases intestinal Ca2+ absorbtion


88
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How do PTH, Calcitonin, and Vitamin D work together to regulate blood calcium

  • PTH: raises blood Ca2+

  • Calcitonin: lowers blood Ca2+

  • Vitamin D (calcitriol): increases Ca2+ absorption from gut


89
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During development of the adrenal gland cortex, what structure originates from the same embryonic tissue and what cells make the adrenal medulla?

  • adrenal cortex originates from mesoderm

  • adrenal medulla cells = chromaffin cells from neural crest cells


90
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What part of the adrenal cortex is not affected by ATCH? What stimulates it and what does it secrete?

  • zona glomerulosa

  • secretes aldosterone


91
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What stimulates the cells of the zona fasciculata and how does it respond?

  • stimulated by ACTH

  • cortisol production


92
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What would be the result of a tumor developed in the zona fasciculata?

  • cushing’s disease


93
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What part of the adrenal cortex produces androgens and how is it regulated?

  • zona reticularis

  • regulated by ACTH


94
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What part of the autonomic nervous system innervates the adrenal medulla?

  • sympathetic nervous system


95
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What does the adrenal medulla produce when stimulated and what are its general effects on the body?

  • produces epinephrine and norepinephrine when stimulated

  • fight-or-flight


96
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What are the two feedback loops that regulate growth?

  • negative feedback loop

  • hypothalamic control loop


97
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What would be the result if an acidophilic tumor developed in the pituitary after the epiphyseal growth plates closed?

  • acromegaly


98
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What cells control the filtration slit diaphragm?

podocytes