BIOS 255 Weeks 5-7 Edapt with expert curated questions and answers-Chamberlain

Which organ systems contain mucous membranes? Select all that apply.

Urinary system

Respiratory system

Endocrine system

Muscular system

Digestive system

Cardiovascular system

Urinary system

Respiratory system

Digestive system

How many specific lines of defense are formed by our immune system?

Four

Three

One

Two

Three

Which leukocytes develop from myeloid hematopoietic tissues? Select all that apply.

Eosinophils

Basophils

Erythrocytes

Lymphocytes

Neutrophils

Eosinophils

Basophils

Neutrophils

What is true regarding innate immunity?

It provides protection against a narrow range of pathogens.

It is highly specific and tailored to individual pathogens.

It encompasses the first and second lines of defense.

It primarily relies on immunological memory.

It encompasses the first and second lines of defense.

Which is not a component of the first line of defense?

Leukocytes

Saliva

Skin

Tears

Mucous membranes

Leukocytes

A child fell off a scooter and scraped their knee. Which line of defense is immediately compromised and which will activate to provide protection?

Second line of defense, third line of defense

First line of defense, third line of defense

Second line of defense, first line of defense

First line of defense, second line of defense

Third line of defense, second line of defense

First line of defense, second line of defense

What is the primary characteristic of adaptive immunity that distinguishes it from innate immunity?

It is non-specific.

It relies on physical barriers like the skin.

It offers specific and long-lasting protection.

It provides rapid but short-lived protection.

It offers specific and long-lasting protection.

Which immune response is primarily associated with the production of antibodies by B cells?

Second line of defense

Cell-mediated immunity

Humoral immunity

First line of defense

Humoral immunity

Lines of Defense: First

Inflammation

Fever

Macrophages

Skin

Humoral immunity

Cell-mediated immunity

Lymphocytes

Mucosal membranes

Eosinophils

Antibodies

Skin

Mucosal membranes

Lines of Defense: Second

Inflammation

Fever

Macrophages

Skin

Humoral immunity

Cell-mediated immunity

Lymphocytes

Mucosal membranes

Eosinophils

Antibodies

Inflammation

Fever

Macrophages

Eosinophils

Lines of Defense: Third

Inflammation

Fever

Macrophages

Skin

Humoral immunity

Cell-mediated immunity

Lymphocytes

Mucosal membranes

Eosinophils

Antibodies

Humoral immunity

Cell-mediated immunity

Lymphocytes

Antibodies

How does adaptive immunity differ from innate immunity?

Innate immunity is highly specific, while adaptive immunity is not.

Innate immunity primarily involves B cells and antibodies.

Adaptive immunity provides immediate, nonspecific protection.

Adaptive immunity generates memory and specific immune responses.

Adaptive immunity generates memory and specific immune responses.

Which scenario best illustrates natural passive immunity?

A newborn gaining immunity through breastfeeding

A person receiving antibodies from a blood transfusion

Vaccination to prevent influenza

Recovering from the flu

A newborn gaining immunity through breastfeeding

What are the components of the second line of defense? Select all that apply.

Eosinophils

Skin

Lymphocytes

Inflammation

Mucous membranes

Neutrophils

Eosinophils

Inflammation

Neutrophils

Which type of immunity is characterized by the body's production of its own antibodies or T cells in response to antigen exposure from an infection acquired by being sneezed on?

Artificial passive immunity

Natural passive immunity

Natural active immunity

Artificial active immunity

Natural active immunity

How does fever contribute to the immune response during an infection?

By suppressing interferon protein activity

By inhibiting the body's ability to repair damaged tissues

By promoting bacterial or viral reproduction

By accelerating tissue repair and inhibiting microbial reproduction

By accelerating tissue repair and inhibiting microbial reproduction

What is the primary function of memory in adaptive immunity?

Provide long-term immunity and a faster response upon re-exposure to a specific pathogen

Regulate body temperature during infections

Create inflammation at the site of infection

Produce antibodies against a wide range of pathogens

Provide long-term immunity and a faster response upon re-exposure to a specific pathogen

How can impaired innate immunity in diabetes affect wound healing and the body's ability to combat infections?

It has no impact on wound healing or infection control.

It only affects the adaptive immune system.

It delays wound healing and increases susceptibility to infections.

It accelerates wound healing due to higher inflammation.

It delays wound healing and increases susceptibility to infections.

Which leukocytes are activated during parasitic infections?

Basophils

Eosinophils

Lymphocytes

Neutrophils

Monocytes

Eosinophils

An increase in body temperature is known as what?

Hematopoiesis

Hypothermia

Inflammation

Hemostasis

Fever

Fever

Which substance keeps the skin from becoming cracked and dry?

Sebum

Keratin

Sweat

Tears

Mucous

Sebum

Which leukocyte binds to a target cell and releases perforins that create pores in the plasma membrane?

Neutrophils

Natural killer (NK) cells

Eosinophils

Monocytes

Natural killer (NK) cells

Which type of protective cells are the first to arrive at the site of injury or infection and engage in phagocytosis?

Neutrophils

Eosinophils

Monocytes

Lymphocytes

Macrophages

Neutrophils

What is the primary function of interferons in the immune system?

Activate macrophages and natural killer (NK) cells

Destroy infected cells directly

Activate antiviral defenses in nearby cells

Trigger inflammation in the body

Activate antiviral defenses in nearby cells

Which is not a cardinal sign of inflammation?

Swelling

Fatigue

Pain

Redness

Fatigue

Which cardinal symptom of inflammation is caused by increased fluid escaping into the tissues at the site of inflammation?

Redness (rubor) ​

Pain (dolor)

Heat (calor)

Swelling (tumor)

Swelling (tumor)

What type of leukocytes release perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis in target cells?

Neutrophils

Eosinophils

Basophils

T lymphocytes

Natural killer (NK) cells

Natural killer (NK) cells

What is the primary component of the epidermal layer of the skin that forms a tough barrier against pathogens?

Lactic acid

Collagen

Keratin

Fatty acids

Keratin

A pyrogen induces what in the body?

Phagocytosis

Cytolysis

Inflammation

Fever

Complement fixation

Fever

Which statement regarding fever and inflammation as part of the second line of defense is accurate?

Inflammation is a systemic response to infection.

Fever is primarily intended to promote pathogen replication.

Fever is caused by pathogens directly attacking the hypothalamus.

Inflammation is characterized by redness, heat, swelling, and pain, mediated by various chemical signals and immune cells.

Inflammation is characterized by redness, heat, swelling, and pain, mediated by various chemical signals and immune cells.

Which enzyme found in mucus, tears, and saliva is responsible for destroying bacteria by dissolving their cell walls?

Keratinase

Dermcidinase

Lysozyme

Defensinase

Lysozyme

Which components constitute the second line of defense? Select all that apply.

Interferons

Defensins

Keratin

Antibodies

Neutrophils

Fever

Interferons

Neutrophils

Fever

Which leukocytes leave the blood and wander through connective tissues as macrophages, phagocytizing pathogens and cellular debris?

Lymphocytes

Eosinophils

Basophils

Monocytes

Neutrophils

Monocytes

Responses by the adaptive immune system are triggered by recognition of __________.

antibodies

antigens

haptens

immunoglobulins

antigens

Which example correctly illustrates artificial active immunity?

Baby acquiring antibodies from the mother’s milk

Administering antiserum for a snake bite

Life-long immunity from measles infection

Vaccination for measles

Vaccination for measles

Where do T cells mature?

Thymus

Lungs

Spleen

Thyroid

Tonsils

Red bone marrow

Thymus

Which type of immunity involves the individual receiving antibodies or T cells from another source, rather than producing them?

Natural passive immunity

Artificial passive immunity

Natural active immunity

Artificial active immunity

Natural passive immunity

Which antibody can cross the placenta and provide temporary immunity to the fetus?

IgA

IgE

IgM

IgG

IgD

IgG

The part of an antibody that binds to the antigen is called the __________ region.

constant

hinge

stem

terminal

variable

variable

Where are major histocompatibility complex (MHC) Class II proteins mainly found?

On the surface of helper T cells

On the surface of antigen-presenting cells (APCs)

On the surface of all nucleated cells in the body

On the surface of cytotoxic T cells

On the surface of antigen-presenting cells (APCs)

Humoral immunity is provided by __________.

B lymphocytes

macrophages

natural killer (NK) cells

neutrophils

T lymphocytes

B lymphocytes

You traveled to Antarctica when a new infectious disease was discovered, circulating among the inhabitants. Assuming you have been exposed, which antibody will be seen at higher levels in your blood approximately four days after you arrive?

IgA

IgE

IgM

IgD

IgG

IgM

Which type of T cell is primarily responsible for directly attacking and destroying foreign or infected cells?

Regulatory T cells

Memory T cells

Helper T cells (CD4+)

Cytotoxic T cells (CD8+)

Cytotoxic T cells (CD8+)

When helper T cells encounter an antigen-presenting cell (APC) and recognize a non-self-antigen, what is the subsequent action in cellular immunity?

Helper T cells release perforins and granzymes.

Memory T cells are activated.

Cytotoxic T cells undergo mitosis.

Regulatory T cells inhibit immune tolerance.

Cytotoxic T cells undergo mitosis.

What is the most abundant and longest-lasting antibody in plasma?

IgD

IgE

IgA

IgM

IgG

IgG

The specific regions on an antigen that elicit an immune response are called __________.

haptens

antibodies

epitopes

the variable region

the constant region

epitopes

Helper T cells are commonly called __________, while cytotoxic T cells are called __________.

CD2

CD4

CD6

CD8

CD4; CD8

Match each term with its correct function:

Plasma cells

Release interleukins

Present antigens to helper T cells

Are involved in anamnestic response

Produce antibodies

Release granzymes and perforins

Produce antibodies

Match each term with its correct function:

Cytotoxic T cells

Release interleukins

Present antigens to helper T cells

Are involved in anamnestic response

Produce antibodies

Release granzymes and perforins

Release granzymes and perforins

Match each term with its correct function:

Helper T cells

Release interleukins

Present antigens to helper T cells

Are involved in anamnestic response

Produce antibodies

Release granzymes and perforins

Release interleukins

Match each term with its correct function:

MHC II proteins

Release interleukins

Present antigens to helper T cells

Are involved in anamnestic response

Produce antibodies

Release granzymes and perforins

Present antigens to helper T cells

Match each term with its correct function:

Memory B cells

Release interleukins

Present antigens to helper T cells

Are involved in anamnestic response

Produce antibodies

Release granzymes and perforins

Are involved in anamnestic response

During T cell development in the thymus, which process helps ensure the maturation of T cells with appropriate recognition capabilities?

Positive selection eliminates T cells that weakly react with self-antigens.

Negative selection promotes the survival of T cells that weakly react with self-antigens.

Positive selection promotes the survival of T cells that strongly react with self-antigens.

Negative selection eliminates T cells that strongly react with self-antigens.

Negative selection eliminates T cells that strongly react with self-antigens.

Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a severe and advanced stage of infection with the __________.

herpes simplex virus

human immunodeficiency virus

human papillomavirus

influenza virus

varicella-zoster virus

human immunodeficiency virus

Which cell is not a primary component of the immune system?

Macrophages

T lymphocyte

Plasma cells

Erythrocyte

B lymphocyte

Erythrocyte

Which diseases result from the body attacking its own healthy tissue?

Degenerative diseases

Genetic diseases

Infectious diseases

Metabolic diseases

Autoimmune diseases

Autoimmune diseases

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is primarily mediated by IgE antibodies?

Type I (immediate) hypersensitivity

Type II (cytotoxic) hypersensitivity

Type III (immune complex-mediated) hypersensitivity

Type IV (delayed-type) hypersensitivity

Type I (immediate) hypersensitivity

Which hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by antibodies, IgG or IgM targeting specific antigens on the surface of cells, leading to cell destruction?

Type I (immediate) hypersensitivity

Type II (cytotoxic) hypersensitivity

Type III (immune complex-mediated) hypersensitivity

Type IV (delayed-type) hypersensitivity

Type II (cytotoxic) hypersensitivity

How is Type IV hypersensitivity unique among the four types?

It is mediated by T cells, not antibodies.

It leads to immune complex deposition in tissues.

It occurs immediately upon exposure to an allergen.

It involves antibodies, primarily IgE.

It is mediated by T cells, not antibodies.

Why are individuals with severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID) highly susceptible to recurrent infections?

Because their immune system lacks effective B and T lymphocytes

Because their B lymphocytes produce excessive antibodies

Because of an overactive immune response

Because they have an excess of T lymphocytes

Because their immune system lacks effective B and T lymphocytes

Which cells does the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) target?

Plasma cells

B Cells

CD4+ cells

CD8+ cells

CD4+ cells

An individual with a severe allergic reaction to peanuts is experiencing significant difficulty breathing, a red skin rash, and swollen lips and eyes. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is most likely occurring in this case?

Type I (immediate) hypersensitivity

Type II (cytotoxic) hypersensitivity

Type III (immune complex-mediated) hypersensitivity

Type IV (delayed-type) hypersensitivity

Type I (immediate) hypersensitivity

Which cells of the immune system are the primary targets of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

Cytotoxic T cells

Antigen-presenting cells

B cells

Helper T cells

Helper T cells

An elevated immune response to a non-pathogenic antigen is called __________.

an autoimmune disease

desensitization

a transfusion reaction

hypersensitivity

immunodeficiency

hypersensitivity

A patient presents with contact dermatitis (e.g., poison ivy reaction) following exposure to a specific substance. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is most likely responsible for this condition?

Type I (immediate) hypersensitivity

Type II (cytotoxic) hypersensitivity

Type III (immune complex-mediated) hypersensitivity

Type IV (delayed-type) hypersensitivity

Type IV (delayed-type) hypersensitivity

What is the primary cause of severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)?

Viral infections

Genetic mutations

Sexual transmission

Allergic reactions

Environmental toxins

Genetic mutations

Which of these is not an autoimmune disease?

Rheumatoid arthritis

Systemic lupus erythematosus

Type I diabetes

Graves' disease

Metastatic cancer

Metastatic cancer

What is the primary mode of transmission for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

Sexual intercourse

Casual contact

Ingestion of contaminated food or water

Airborne transmission

Sexual intercourse

Autoimmune disorders result from a failure of which process?

Clonal expansion

Positive selection

Self-tolerance

Antigen presenting

Self-tolerance