Respiratory Disorders: Pathophysiology, Assessment & Gas Exchange

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62 Terms

1
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What is the clinical definition of dyspnea?

A subjective sensation reported by the patient of difficult, uncomfortable, or inadequate breathing.

2
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Why does orthopnea occur when a patient with heart failure or advanced lung disease lies flat?

Gravitational fluid redistributes from the lower extremities toward the chest, increasing pulmonary pressure and work of breathing.

3
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What is paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)?

Sudden episodes of waking from sleep gasping for air due to nighttime fluid shifts into the pulmonary circulation.

4
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How do clinicians differentiate an acute cough from a chronic cough based on duration?

An acute cough lasts less than 3 weeks; a chronic cough lasts longer than 6 weeks.

5
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What is the term for coughing up blood or blood-tinged sputum?

Hemoptysis

6
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What metabolic state causes Kussmaul respirations, and what is the body attempting to accomplish?

Metabolic acidosis; deep, labored breathing compensates by blowing off excess carbon dioxide.

7
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What underlying pathology is indicated by Cheyne-Stokes respirations?

Impairment of the respiratory control center in the brainstem.

8
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How does hypoventilation affect arterial CO2 levels and blood pH?

It causes CO2 buildup, leading to respiratory acidosis.

9
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How does hyperventilation affect arterial blood gases?

Excessive ventilation blows off CO2, leading to respiratory alkalosis.

10
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Which central nervous system signs develop as hypercapnia worsens?

Somnolence, confusion, lethargy, and progressively decreased level of consciousness.

11
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What is the difference between hypoxemia and hypoxia?

Hypoxemia is low oxygen concentration in arterial blood; hypoxia is inadequate oxygen delivery to tissue cells.

12
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How can a patient have severe tissue hypoxia despite normal arterial blood oxygen levels?

Impaired tissue perfusion prevents blood delivery to peripheral tissues.

13
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What type of sign is cyanosis in terms of respiratory compromise?

Late, severe, and urgent.

14
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What physiological condition causes digital clubbing?

Long-term, chronic tissue hypoxia.

15
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In pulmonary physiology, what does ventilation describe?

The flow of air into and out of the alveoli.

16
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In pulmonary physiology, what does perfusion describe?

The flow of blood through the pulmonary alveolar capillaries.

17
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Why does severe pneumonia cause a ventilation-perfusion mismatch?

Alveoli are filled with inflammatory fluid, impairing ventilation.

18
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Why does a pulmonary embolism cause a ventilation-perfusion mismatch?

A blood clot blocks blood flow to alveolar capillaries, impairing perfusion.

19
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What defines acute respiratory failure?

Inability of the lungs to maintain adequate gas exchange.

20
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Which early clinical cues indicate that a patient is developing impending respiratory failure?

Increased work of breathing, accessory muscle use, tachypnea, fatigue, anxiety, and altered mental status.

21
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Why can a compensating patient with severe respiratory distress crash suddenly?

Respiratory muscle fatigue leads to rapid CO2 retention and cardiac arrest.

22
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What mechanical defect defines restrictive lung disorders?

Inability of the lungs or chest wall to expand normally.

23
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How does pulmonary fibrosis alter lung mechanics and gas exchange?

Scarring creates stiff, non-compliant lungs that resist inflation.

24
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What mechanical defect defines obstructive lung disorders?

Airway narrowing or collapse that hinders airflow.

25
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List three non-pulmonary conditions that cause chest wall restriction.

Severe obesity, chest wall skeletal deformities, and thoracic wall trauma.

26
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What is flail chest, and what breathing motion characterizes it?

Fracture of consecutive ribs causing paradoxical movement.

27
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Why does flail chest lead to hypoventilation?

Inefficient paradoxical chest expansion suppresses deep tidal breathing.

28
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How does entry of air into the pleural space cause atelectasis?

It disrupts normal intrapleural negative pressure.

29
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What structural mechanism makes a tension pneumothorax life-threatening?

A one-way valve effect prevents air escape during expiration.

30
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How does a tension pneumothorax lead to cardiovascular collapse?

High intrapleural pressure compresses the vena cava.

31
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How do transudative and exudative pleural effusions differ?

Transudates are watery fluids; exudates are protein/cell-rich fluids.

32
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Differentiate empyema from chylothorax.

Empyema is infected pleural fluid; chylothorax is lymphatic fluid in the pleural space.

33
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What is empyema?

Pus-filled pleural fluid from severe infection.

34
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What is chylothorax?

Milky lymphatic fluid in the pleural space from thoracic duct trauma/obstruction.

35
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What initial tissue reaction occurs when foreign material enters the lower airway during aspiration?

Acute pulmonary inflammation triggering chemical pneumonitis, mucosal injury, or aspiration pneumonia.

36
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Differentiate obstructive atelectasis from compression atelectasis.

Obstructive atelectasis follows mucus/foreign body airway blockage; compression atelectasis occurs when external pleural fluid, air, or mass compresses lung tissue.

37
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What structural airway abnormality characterizes bronchiectasis?

Chronic, irreversible dilation of the bronchi caused by repeated infection and inflammation.

38
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What is the primary cause of pneumoconiosis?

Inhalation of inorganic dust particles causing chronic inflammation, tissue destruction, and pulmonary fibrosis.

39
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What mechanism causes hypersensitivity alveolitis?

An immune-mediated reaction to repeated inhalation of organic dusts or fumes.

40
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What primary microscopic membrane injury initiates acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

Diffuse damage to the alveolar-capillary membrane.

41
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What hallmark oxygenation finding strongly suggests ARDS rather than simple pulmonary edema?

Refractory hypoxemia.

42
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Why do patients in advanced ARDS develop metabolic acidosis?

Severe systemic tissue hypoxia forces cells into anaerobic metabolism, generating high levels of lactic acid.

43
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Which triad of pathophysiological changes narrows airways during an acute asthma attack?

Bronchial smooth muscle constriction, airway mucosal edema/inflammation, and hypersecretion of thick mucus.

44
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What is status asthmaticus?

A severe, prolonged asthma exacerbation that does not respond to standard bronchodilator therapy.

45
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How do beta-2 agonists and inhaled corticosteroids address distinct pathophysiological targets in asthma?

Beta-2 agonists relax constricted bronchial smooth muscle; corticosteroids suppress underlying chronic mucosal inflammation.

46
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What two distinct lung pathologies combine to form COPD?

Chronic bronchitis and emphysema.

47
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What primary tissue alteration causes persistent airway obstruction in chronic bronchitis?

Hypertrophy of submucosal mucus glands in bronchial walls.

48
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What structural destruction causes air trapping in pulmonary emphysema?

Breakdown of alveolar walls and loss of pulmonary elastic recoil.

49
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Why do patients with emphysema develop a barrel-chest configuration?

Chronic air trapping hyperinflates the lungs.

50
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How do diagnostic imaging findings distinguish acute bronchitis from pneumonia?

Acute bronchitis shows clear lungs on chest X-ray; pneumonia shows alveolar infiltrates.

51
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Why is pneumonia more likely than acute bronchitis to directly cause arterial hypoxemia?

Pneumonia infects and floods the alveoli with inflammatory exudate.

52
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How does the immune system respond to initial Mycobacterium tuberculosis pulmonary infection?

It walls off the bacteria inside a granuloma/tubercle.

53
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What does a positive tuberculin skin test signify?

Immune system exposure and sensitization to TB antigens.

54
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Which clinical manifestations indicate active, contagious pulmonary tuberculosis?

Chronic productive cough, night sweats, low-grade afternoon fever, unexplained weight loss, and hemoptysis.

55
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Where do the vast majority of pulmonary emboli originate?

Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the deep veins of the lower extremities.

56
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How does a massive pulmonary embolism impair right ventricular heart function?

Increases right ventricular outflow resistance, causing acute right heart strain.

57
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Which clinical symptom presentation should immediately raise suspicion for a pulmonary embolism?

Sudden-onset dyspnea, sharp pleuritic chest pain.

58
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What is the key early warning symptom of laryngeal cancer?

Persistent hoarseness or voice changes lasting longer than two weeks.

59
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Why is small cell lung carcinoma (SCLC) considered particularly aggressive?

It arises from neuroendocrine tissue, grows rapidly, and is linked to heavy smoking.

60
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Why is lung cancer often diagnosed late in long-term smokers?

Early symptoms mimic baseline COPD or 'smoker's cough.'

61
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How do exhalation findings clinically distinguish obstructive from restrictive pulmonary disease?

Obstructive diseases display prolonged expiration; restrictive diseases display reduced chest expansion.

62
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What does rising PaCO2 in a patient with respiratory distress indicate?

Respiratory muscle fatigue and impending hypercapnic respiratory arrest.