BAILEY AND SCOTTS - microbiology

A clinical laboratory scientist is working on the bench, reading plates, and notices that a culture has both a unicellular form and a filamentous form. What type of organism exhibits these forms?

a. Bacteria

b. Parasite

c. Fungi

d. Virus

c. Fungi

A laboratory professional is testing a new antimicrobial soap. He washes his forearm, then does a culture of the skin. Which organisms should he expect to find growing in the culture?

a. S. epidermidis and Propionibacterium

b. S. aureus and Propionibacterium

c. Diphtheroids and Bacillus spp.

d. Diphtheroids and Propionibacterium

e. None of these organisms should be found.

a. S. epidermidis and Propionibacterium

A laboratory technician is working with tissue infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis that has been preserved in formalin for a couple years. After dissecting the tissue, how should the worker sterilize the work area?

a. Use formaldehyde gas to clean the area.

b. Wipe down the work area with a 50% alcohol solution.

c. Wipe down the work area with a 10% bleach solution.

d. Wipe down the work area with a 37% formalin solution.

c. Wipe down the work area with a 10% bleach solution.

A medical technologist is reading an anaerobic culture and observes a double zone of hemolysis on an anaerobically incubated sheep blood agar plate. The Gram stain of that organism was a boxcar-shaped, gram-positive bacillus. What organism is this?

a. Clostridium perfringens

b. C. difficile

c. C. ramosum

d. C. clostridiiforme

a. Clostridium perfringens

A medical technologist is reading plates from a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) culture. She notices that there is growth on chocolate agar (CHOC), but no growth on sheep blood agar (SBA) or MacConkey (MAC) agar. The Gram stain showed a gram-negative bacillus. What organism should be suspected?

a. Haemophilus influenzae

b. Escherichia coli

c. Staphylococcus aureus

d. Streptococcus pneumoniae

a. Haemophilus influenzae

Alcohols use this mechanism to inactivate microorganisms.

a. Inhibit cell wall synthesis

b. Destroy DNA

c. Denature RNA

d. Denature proteins

d. Denature proteins

All of the following are biochemical characteristics of Vibrio spp. EXCEPT:

a. Reduce nitrate to nitrite

b. Halophilic

c. Ferments glucose

d. Oxidase negative

d. Oxidase negative

All of the following are non-spore-forming, anaerobic, gram-positive bacilli EXCEPT:

a. Eubacterium

b. Actinomyces

c. Clostridium

d. Bifidobacterium

c. Clostridium

All of the following organisms are found on the skin EXCEPT: a. Propionibacterium

b. Peptostreptococcus

c. Clostridium

d. Eubacterium

c. Clostridium

All the following are considered pathogenic organisms found in the nasopharynx of healthy individuals EXCEPT:

a. Haemophilus influenzae

b. Streptococcus pneumoniae

c. Neisseria meningitidis

d. Moraxella catarrhalis

d. Moraxella catarrhalis

Antibiotics that demonstrate a narrow spectrum of activity:

a. Kill a wide variety of bacteria.

b. Kill only a few specific types of bacteria.

c. Kill bacteria by using only one specific mechanism.

d. Kill bacteria by using a narrow spectrum of mechanisms.

b. Kill only a few specific types of bacteria

Autoclaves use this method to sterilize inanimate objects.

a. Heat under steam pressure

b. Microwaves

c. Dry heat

d. Infrared light rays

a. Heat under steam pressure

Bacterial vaginosis is a synergistic infectious process involving all the following bacteria EXCEPT:

a. Gardnerella

b. Peptostreptococcus

c. Bacteroides

d. Eubacterium

d. Eubacterium

Confirmatory tests for syphilis include all the following EXCEPT:

a. MHA-TP

b. TP-PA

c. FTA-ABS

d. RPR

d. RPR

Disinfectants are usually used at this temperature.

a. 20° to 22° C

b. 0° to 10° C

c. 50° to 100° C

d. 25° to 50° C

a. 20° to 22° C

For which clinical specimens is the KOH direct mount technique for examination of fungal elements used?

a. Bone marrow

b. CSF

c. Skin

d. Blood

c. Skin

Generally, microbiologists observe the colonial morphology of organisms on primary culture after how many hours of incubation?

a. 72 hours

b. 6 to 12 hours

c. 18 to 24 hours

d. 24 to 48 hours

c. 18 to 24 hours

Genes that code for antibiotic resistance are often found on extracellular, small, circular pieces of DNA. These DNA pieces are called:

a. Genomes

b. Chromosomes

c. Phenotypes

d. Plasmids

d. Plasmids

High-level disinfectants are active against all the following EXCEPT:

a. Parasites

b. Tubercle bacilli

c. Spores

d. Fungi

a. Parasites

How is Helicobacter pylori presumptively identified?

a. A rapid urease test done on a gastric biopsy

b. A culture of a gastric biopsy

c. A rapid oxidase test done on gastric scrapings

d. A culture of gastric scrapings

a. A rapid urease test done on a gastric biopsy

How long are anaerobic cultures routinely held in the laboratory?

a. 7 to 9 days

b. 5 to 7 days

c. 3 to 4 days

d. 1 to 2 days

b. 5 to 7 days

If bacteria utilize various carbohydrates for growth, it is usually detected by:

a. Alkaline production and change of color from the pH indicator

b. Production of carbon dioxide

c. Production of keto acids

d. Acid production and change of color from the pH indicator

d. Acid production and change of color from the pH indicator

If you are bitten by a dog, what organism is most likely to cause an infection at the site of the bite?

a. Yersinia pestis

b. Pasteurella multocida

c. Bacillus anthracis

d. Borrelia burgdorferi

b. Pasteurella multocida

Infection with cytomegalovirus (CMV) in nonimmune pregnant women can cause:

a. Misshapen limbs

b. Microencephalopathy

c. Congenital heart defects

d. Liver problems

b. Microencephalopathy

Known to produce heat stable and heat labile enterotoxins and is associated with epidemic diarrhea:

a. EHEC

b. EPEC

c. EIEC

d. ETEC

d. ETEC

Lysozyme is:

a. A low-molecular-weight enzyme that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan layer of bacterial cell walls

b. An exotoxin that digests the lipopolysaccharide layer of the bacterial cell wall

c. A radical similar to hydrogen peroxide

d. An antibody produced by the skin

a. A low-molecular-weight enzyme that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan layer of bacterial cell walls

MacConkey agar is used to:

a. Differentiate between hemolytic and nonhemolytic gram-negative rods.

b. Differentiate between lactose fermenters and lactose nonfermenters.

c. Demonstrate the large, pink colonies of Neisseria meningitidis.

d. Show the clear, pinpoint colonies of Haemophilus influenzae.

b. Differentiate between lactose fermenters and lactose nonfermenters

Many materials in hospitals that must be sterilized cannot withstand steam sterilization. Gas sterilization is used instead, using this gas.

a. Ethylene oxide

b. Carbon dioxide

c. Oxygen

d. Nitrous oxide

a. Ethylene oxide

Mechanisms used by the skin to prevent infection and protect the underlying tissue from invasion by potential pathogens include all the following EXCEPT:

a. Desquamation of the epithelium

b. Mechanical separation of microorganisms from the tissues

c. Excretion of lysozyme by sweat glands

d. Antibiotics that inhibit many microorganisms

d. Antibiotics that inhibit many microorganisms

Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma spp. must have media supplemented with serum or sugar as nutrients and because: a. Their cell walls contain detoxifying enzymes.

b. Their cell walls contain only peptidoglycan.

c. The sterols in their cell walls are soluble in normal bacterial media.

d. They lack cell walls.

d. They lack cell walls

Mycoplasma spp. are characterized by:

a. Inability to grow on artificial media

b. Presence of cell wall

c. Absence of cell wall

d. Requirement of living or viable culture medium

c. Absence of cell wall

Name the numerous short projections that extend from the cell surface and are used for locomotion.

a. Phospholipid

b. Flagella

c. Mitochondria

d. Cilia

d. Cilia

Nonselective media supports:

a. The growth of fastidious microbes through the addition of certain growth enhancers

b. The growth of one type or group of microbes, but not another

c. The grouping of microbes based on different characteristics demonstrated in the media

d. The growth of most nonfastidious microbes

d. The growth of most nonfastidious microbes

Once bioterrorism is suspected, a sentinel laboratory should perform all culture manipulation using these safety guidelines. a. BSL-3

b. BSL-4

c. BSL-1

d. BSL-2

a. BSL-3

Plasmids are:

a. DNA elements that encode transposition and excision function and can transpose from one place on the chromosome to another

b. Circular structures present in bacteria that contain genes encoding proteins and RNA and have the capacity to self-replicate and portion into daughter cells during cellular division

c. Genetic elements capable of integrating resistance genes (cassettes) by an integron-encoded, site-specific recombinase

d. DNA elements found in bacteria that carry genes only for the enzymes needed to promote their own transposition

b. Circular structures present in bacteria that contain genes encoding proteins and RNA and have the capacity to self-replicate and portion into daughter cells during cellular division

Routine handwashing in health care settings mandates washing at all the following times EXCEPT:

a. In high-risk areas such as ICU and burn units

b. When gloves become soiled during a procedure or dressing change on the same patient.

c. On entering protective isolation units

d. Before and after routine patient contact

b. When gloves become soiled during a procedure or dressing change on the same patient

Some bacteria grow at 25° C or 42° C, but diagnostic laboratories routinely grow pathogenic bacteria at what temperature?

a. 60° C

b. 30° C

c. 35° C

d. 10° C

c. 35° C

Stimulates chlamydospore production for Candida albicans

a. Rice medium

b. Cornmeal Agar

c. Ascospore agar

b. Cornmeal Agar

Technicians are doing the morning chemistry run. Once they load the specimens onto the instrument, they remove their gloves to do paperwork in a clean area of the laboratory. What should the technicians do after removing their gloves?

a. Call any critical values.

b. Take a break and eat a snack.

c. Wash their hands.

d. Reposition the tubes in the racks.

c. Wash their hands.

The b-lactams consist of all the following antibiotics EXCEPT: a. Carbapenems

b. Penicillins

c. Vancomycin

d. Cephalosporins

c. Vancomycin

The best way to minimize the amount of upper respiratory florae in a sputum specimen is to follow these procedures:

a. When plating the specimen, ensure that the swab goes deep into the sample to get only bacteria present in the lower lung.

b. Cough up the specimen, then when the specimen gets to the lab, digest it with enzymes that will kill the normal florae.

c. Have the patient rinse their mouth with water and expectorate with the aid of a really deep cough directly into a sterile container

c. Have the patient rinse their mouth with water and expectorate with the aid of a really deep cough directly into a sterile container

The edge of the colonies is described as all the following EXCEPT:

a. Smooth

b. Irregular

c. Glasslike

d. Filamentous

c. Glasslike

The hierarchical classification system consists of different taxa designations. Arrange the ff. in order:

a. Species ? Genus ? Family ? Order ? Phylum ? Class ? Kingdom

b. Species ? Genus ? Family ? Class ? Order ? Phylum ? Kingdom

c. Species ? Genus ? Order ? Family ? Class ? Phylum ? Kingdom

d. Species ? Genus ? Family ? Order ? Class ? Phylum ? Kingdom

d. Species ? Genus ? Family ? Order ? Class ? Phylum ? Kingdom

The most common bacterial characteristic that allows for evasion of phagocytosis by the host is:

a. Exotoxin production

b. Polysaccharide capsule

c. Pili

d. Extracellular enzyme production

b. Polysaccharide capsule

The purpose of transport media is to:

a. Not promote the multiplication of microorganisms but ensure their preservation

b. Make sure the microorganisms can multiply and live as though they were still in the host

c. Keep the swab moist so that the microorganisms do not dry out

d. Take the place of plating a routine culture with the specimen

a. Not promote the multiplication of microorganisms but ensure their preservation

These are enzymes that cut the bacterial DNA at specific locations.

a.Bacteriophage enzymes

b. Temperate lysogeny enzymes

c. Conjugation enzymes

d. Restriction enzymes

d. Restriction enzymes

This is a form of food poisoning that can be life threatening.

a. B. cereus

b. C. botulinum

c. S. aureus

d. C. difficile

b. C. botulinum

This is a leukocidin that is lethal to leukocytes and produced by staphylococci.

a. Panton-Valentine

b. Lancefield

c. Adhesins

d. Hemolysin

a. Panton-Valentine

This process results in enhanced phagocytosis by neutrophils. a. Chemotaxis

b. Digestion

c. Glycolysis

d. Opsonization

d. Opsonization

This type of bacteria is able to live in the colon with little to no oxygen and is the predominant organism.

a. Gram-positive cocci

b. Facultative gram-negative rods

c. Anaerobes

d. Facultative anaerobes

c. Anaerobes

Two types of specimens can use preservatives to maintain them until they can be delivered to the laboratory. They are:

a. Urine, vaginal secretions

b. Urine, stool

c. Stool, throat cultures

d. Pus from a wound, vaginal secretions

b. Urine, stool

Universal/Standard Precautions require that:

a. Blood and body fluids from all patients be considered infectious and capable of transmitting disease

b. Body fluids with visible blood be treated as noninfectious

c. Urine and feces be considered noninfectious

d. Only some body fluids be considered infectious and capable of transmitting disease

a. Blood and body fluids from all patients be considered infectious and capable of transmitting disease

What are the natural hosts for the plague-causing organism, Yersinia pestis?

a. Deer

b. Monkeys

c. Rats

d. Birds

c. Rats

What are the two most frequently identified bacterial causes of communityacquired sinusitis?

a. H. influenzae and Neisseria meningitidis

b. Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae

c. Staphylococcus aureus and Escherichia coli

d. S. pneumoniae and Mycoplasma pneumoniae

b. Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae

What are two important factors that must be taken into consideration when transporting specimens for anaerobic culture?

a. Minimum exposure to oxygen and drying out

b. Drying out and proper nutrition

c. Minimum exposure to oxygen and making sure the specimen is transported in a tightly closed screw-cap container

d. Making sure there is enough specimen in a tightly closed container

a. Minimum exposure to oxygen and drying out

What causes erythema infectiosum?

a. Parvovirus

b. Herpesvirus

c. Togaviridae

d. Paramyxovirus

a. Parvovirus.

What causes rubeola?

a. Torovirus

b. Herpesvirus

c. Paramyxovirus

d. Calicivirus

c. Paramyxovirus

What causes scarlet fever?

a. Proteases

b. S. aureus

c. Endotoxin

d. Erythrogenic toxin

d. Erythrogenic toxin

What disease does Clostridium perfringens cause?

a. Food poisoning

b. Toxic shock syndrome

c. Botulism

d. Tetanus

a. Food poisoning

What disease is known as the woolsorters disease?

a. Venezuelan equine encephalitis

b. Glanders

c. West Nile disease

d. Anthrax

d. Anthrax

What disease is transmitted by Ixodes dammini?

a. Plague

b. Lyme disease

c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever

d. Colorado tick fever

b. Lyme disease

What disease results from a reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus that demonstrates a vesicular eruption in a unilateral dermatomal distribution?

a. Chicken pox

b. Infectious mononucleosis

c. Rubella

d. Shingles

d. Shingles

What do aeromonad colonies look like on cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin (CIN) agar?

a. Green colonies

b. Clear colonies

c. Purple colonies

d. Pink colonies

d. Pink colonies

What enables the microbiologist to select the correct media for primary culture and optimize the chance of isolating a pathogenic organism

a. Knowing the differences in cell walls of particular bacteria. b. Determining staining characteristics

c. Understanding the growth requirements of a particular bacterium

d. Understanding the cell structure and biochemical pathways of an organism

c. Understanding the growth requirements of a particular bacterium

What flourocrome can be used for staining Fungi?

a. Auramine-rhodamine

b. Bromcresol purple

c. Calcoflour white

d. Acridine orange

c. Calcoflour white

What is a porin?

a. Outer membrane channels that permit the inflow of nutrients and the outflow of wastes

b. Substrates for enzymes that enable protein synthesis

c. An inner membrane pore that allows proteins out into the cytoplasm

a. Outer membrane channels that permit the inflow of nutrients and the outflow of wastes

What is an anaerobe?

a. An organism that requires some oxygen but moderate concentrations of CO2 to live

b. An organism that requires small amounts of oxygen and carbon dioxide to live

c. An organism that can live with very little oxygen

d. An organism that does not require oxygen to live

d. An organism that does not require oxygen to live

What is another name for brucellosis?

a. Anthrax

b. Lyme disease

c. Glanders

d. Undulant fever

d. Undulant fever

What is ringworm?

a. A fungal skin infection

b. A viral skin infection

c. A bacterial skin infection

d. A parasitic skin infection

a. A fungal skin infection

What is river blindness?

a. Infection with Strongyloides stercoralis

b. Infection with Onchocerca volvulus

c. Infection with Entamoeba histolytica

d. Infection with Naegleria fowleri

b. Infection with Onchocerca volvulus

What is swimmers itch?

a. When Pseudomonas spp. causes a dermatitis

b. When arthropods deposit larvae in human skin, causing dermatitis

c. When food or water causes a dermatitis

d. When cercariae larvae penetrate human skin, causing dermatitis

d. When cercariae larvae penetrate human skin, causing dermatitis

What is the Hallmark test for Staphylococcus aureus?

a. Catalase test

b. Coagulase test

c. Microdase test

d. PYR test

b. Coagulase test

What is the morphology and Gram stain result of Streptococcus pyogenes?

a. Gram (+) bacilli

b. Gram (-) bacilli

c. Gram (+) cocci

d. Gram (-) cocci

c. Gram (+) cocci

What is the most common form of anthrax?

a. Gastrointestinal

b. Inhalation

c. Cutaneous

d. Septicemic

c. Cutaneous

What is the most infamous type of myonecrosis?

a. Tetanus

b. Ebola hemorrhage

c. Gas gangrene

d. Flesh-eating Streptococcus

c. Gas gangrene

What is the name of the organism that is responsible for "summer diarrhea" in Japan?

a. Vibrio cholerae

b. V. vulnificus

c. V. parahaemolyticus

d. V. trota

c. V. parahaemolyticus

What is the name of the organism that is strongly associated with gastric, peptic, and duodenal ulcers as well as GI carcinoma?

a. S. typhi

b. Campylobacter jejuni

c. E. coli

d. Helicobacter pylori

d. Helicobacter pylori

What is the role of Staphylococcus aureus to demonstrate satellitism on BAP?

a. Inhibitory agent

b. Source of X factor

c. Source of V factor

d. Antagonisticj

c. Source of V factor

What is the specimen of choice for recovery of Bordetella pertussis?

a. Cotton nasopharyngeal swabs

b. Rayon nasopharyngeal swabs

c. Calcium alginate nasopharyngeal swabs

d. Dacron nasopharyngeal swabs

d. Dacron nasopharyngeal swabs

What organism causes epiglottis?

a. Streptococcus pneumoniae

b. Bordetella pertussis

c. Haemophilus influenzae

d. Moraxella catarrhalis

c. Haemophilus influenzae

What organism has a microscopic morphology of tiny gram-negative rods, curved, with S-shapes or seagull-wing shapes on Gram stain?

a. Haemophilus

b. Helicobacter

c. Campylobacter

d. Acinetobacter

a. Streptococcus pyogenes

What organism is most often responsible for impetigo?

a. Streptococcus pyogenes

b. Enterococcus faecalis

c. Streptococcus agalactiae

d. Staphylococcus epidermidis

a. Streptococcus pyogenes

What organism is the most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis worldwide?

a. Campylobacter jejuni

b. C. fetus

c. C. lari

d. C. coli

a. Campylobacter jejuni

What organism is the most common opportunistic pathogen that routinely infects patients with HIV/AIDS?

a. Serratia marcescens

b. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

c. Pneumocystis carinii

d. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

c. Pneumocystis carinii

What organisms are most frequently isolated from cultures of individuals with otitis media?

a. S. pneumoniae and Mycoplasma pneumoniae

b. Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae

c. H. influenzae and Neisseria meningitidis

d. Staphylococcus aureus and Escherichia coli

b. Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae

What organisms growing in a urine culture can be considered contaminants?

a. Streptococcus spp.

b. Fungus

c. Bacillus spp.

d. Enterobacteriaceae

c. Bacillus spp.

What temperature is an optimal growth temperature for Campylobacter jejuni?

a. 42° C

b. 25° C

c. 35° C

d. 60° C

a. 42° C

What two parasitic agents commonly affect patients with malignancy?

a. Strongyloides stercoralis and Giardia lamblia

b. Giardia lamblia and Listeria monocytogenes

c. Pneumocystis jiroveci (carinii) and Toxoplasma gondii

d. Toxoplasma gondii and Wuchereria bancrofti

c. Pneumocystis jiroveci (carinii) and Toxoplasma gondii

What type of bacteria are those in the genus Clostridium?

a. Anaerobic cocci

b. Anaerobic bacilli

c. Spore-forming anaerobic cocci

d. Spore-forming anaerobic bacilli

d. Spore-forming anaerobic bacilli

What type of fermentation produces lactic, acetic, succinic, and formic acids as the end products?

a. Homolactic

b. Butanediol

c. Mixed acid

d. Propionic

c. Mixed acid

When bacteria are growing, they go through a log phase when:

a. The bacteria numbers usually double with each generation time

b. They are preparing to divide.

c. Nutrients are becoming limited and the numbers of bacteria remain constant.

d. The number of nonviable bacterial cells exceeds the number of viable cells.

a. The bacteria numbers usually double with each generation time

When performing a Gram stain on a gram-negative organism, the crystal violet is absorbed into this outer cell wall layer then washed away with the acid alcohol. What is the main component of the outer layer of the cell wall?

a. Peptidoglycan

b. N-acetyl-d-muramic acid

c. Mycolic acid

d. Lipopolysaccharide

d. Lipopolysaccharide

When using disinfectants, it is important to follow the manufacturer's instructions for diluting the product because if it is not diluted properly:

a. The resulting solution would not kill mycobacteria.

b. You would be wasting money by using too much disinfectant.

c. The resulting solution would not kill parasites.

d. There may not be enough free chemicals to kill the organisms.

d. There may not be enough free chemicals to kill the organisms.

When using the isolation streaking technique, the greatest concentration of organisms (if present) will be in which quadrant?

a. First

b. Second

c. Fourth

d. Third

a. First

Which of the following enzymes contribute to the virulence of S. aureus?

a. Hyaluronidase and ?-lactamase

b. Cytochrome oxidase

c. Urease and lecithinase

d. Lecithinase and catalase

a. Hyaluronidase and ?-lactamase

Which of the following is a curved, gram-negative rod that grows on TCBS agar?

a. Campylobacter

b. Clostridium

c. Vibrio

d. Fusobacterium

c. Vibrio

Which of the following is considered a better specimen for anaerobic culture than a swab?

a. Scraping

b. Lavage

c. Washing

d. Aspirate

d. Aspirate

Which of the following is/are not true for plasmids?

a. Plasmids are responsible for antibiotic resistance of some bacteria

b. They are use for gene transfer

c. They are autonomously replicating genetic elements

d. They are determinants of unique catabolic process

d. They are determinants of unique catabolic process

Which statement correctly describes X factor?

a. Produced by S. aureus

b. derived from yeast and potato extract

c. Heat labile

d. Known as hemin or hematin

d. Known as hemin or hematin

Why is laboratory-acquired infection an obvious hazard for personnel working in a microbiology lab?

a. Personnel deal with a variety of infections agents: viral, fungal, parasitic, and bacterial.

b. In-service education is not provided for microbiology staff.

c. Safety practices are not applicable for the microbiology laboratory.

d. Microbiology personnel do not always adhere to safety practices

a. Personnel deal with a variety of infections agents: viral, fungal, parasitic, and bacterial.