practice questions

0.0(0)
Studied by 7 people
call kaiCall Kai
learnLearn
examPractice Test
spaced repetitionSpaced Repetition
heart puzzleMatch
flashcardsFlashcards
GameKnowt Play
Card Sorting

1/168

encourage image

There's no tags or description

Looks like no tags are added yet.

169 Terms

1
New cards

What does antepartum mean?

The period during pregnancy before birth.

2
New cards

How does implantation occur?

Enzymes from the conceptus erode the uterine decidua, allowing embedding.

3
New cards

When is the embryonic period?

Weeks 3–8 after conception.

4
New cards

Why are teratogens particularly harmful during weeks 3–8 after conception?

Major organ structures are forming; exposure can disrupt organ development.

5
New cards

What is progesterone's main role in pregnancy?

Maintains the uterine lining and reduces uterine contractility.

6
New cards

What is hPL's main effect?

Increases insulin resistance and nutrient availability to the fetus.

7
New cards

Which structure forms the fetal portion of the placenta?

Chorionic villi.

8
New cards

What are presumptive signs of pregnancy?

Subjective signs reported by the patient; they do not confirm pregnancy.

9
New cards

What are probable signs of pregnancy?

Objective findings that suggest pregnancy but do not confirm a viable intrauterine fetus.

10
New cards

What are positive signs of pregnancy?

Fetus visualized on ultrasound, fetal heart activity distinct from maternal pulse, or fetal movement palpated by an examiner.

11
New cards

What is Naegele's rule?

First day of LMP + 7 days − 3 months + 1 year, with calendar adjustment.

12
New cards

A patient is currently pregnant, had one term singleton, one 9-week loss, and living twins delivered at 34 weeks. What is GTPAL?

G4 T1 P1 A1 L3.

13
New cards

What is full term?

39 weeks 0 days to 40 weeks 6 days.

14
New cards

How often are routine prenatal visits through 28 weeks according to lecture?

Every 4 weeks.

15
New cards

What are key initial prenatal lab screens?

Blood type/Rh, antibody screen, CBC, urine and infection screening, and dating assessment.

16
New cards

What should the nurse assess at prenatal follow-up visits?

BP, weight, new symptoms/risks, ordered urine tests, fundal growth, FHR, movement, coping, and teaching needs.

17
New cards

What is the typical fetal heart rate baseline?

110–160 beats/min.

18
New cards

Where is the fundus at approximately 20 weeks?

Near the umbilicus.

19
New cards

What do Leopold maneuvers assess?

Fetal lie, presentation, and position through abdominal palpation.

20
New cards

Which prenatal symptoms require prompt reporting?

Bleeding, fluid leakage, severe headache, vision changes, severe abdominal/RUQ pain, fever, reduced fetal movement, or preterm labor symptoms.

21
New cards

Why does physiologic anemia occur during pregnancy?

Plasma volume increases more than RBC mass, diluting hemoglobin and hematocrit.

22
New cards

A pregnant patient becomes dizzy and hypotensive while supine. What is the FIRST nursing action?

Turn the patient laterally, then reassess BP and symptoms.

23
New cards

How do Braxton Hicks contractions differ from true/preterm labor?

Braxton Hicks are generally irregular and do not cause progressive cervical change.

24
New cards

Which symptoms suggest possible preterm labor?

Regular persistent contractions, pelvic pressure, backache, fluid leakage, or cervical change.

25
New cards

How should the nurse screen for intimate partner violence?

Privately, without the partner present, using a qualified interpreter if needed.

26
New cards

What is the FIRST priority when IPV is disclosed?

Assess immediate danger and safety.

27
New cards

How can the nurse provide culturally responsive prenatal care?

Ask about individual beliefs, food practices, modesty, family roles, and support preferences without assumptions.

28
New cards

What does TORCH stand for?

Toxoplasmosis; Other (including syphilis/hepatitis B); Rubella; Cytomegalovirus; Herpes.

29
New cards

What fetal/newborn risks are associated with maternal HIV according to lecture?

Transmission to infant, miscarriage, low birth weight, stillbirth, and preterm birth.

30
New cards

What is the primary treatment for HIV in pregnancy?

Antiretroviral therapy to reduce transmission risk.

31
New cards

What fetal/newborn problems can CMV cause?

Neurologic impairment, seizures, vision/hearing problems, dental abnormalities, and petechiae.

32
New cards

What causes gestational diabetes?

Placental hormones increase insulin resistance beyond the mother's ability to compensate with insulin production.

33
New cards

When is routine gestational diabetes screening performed?

Usually 24–28 weeks.

34
New cards

What follows an abnormal 50-g screen in the two-step approach?

Fasting 100-g 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test.

35
New cards

What newborn complications are associated with maternal GDM (Gestational Diabetes Mellitus)?

Hypoglycemia, respiratory distress, hypocalcemia, and hyperbilirubinemia.

36
New cards

What are nursing priorities for gestational diabetes?

Meal planning, glucose checks, prescribed activity/medication, hypoglycemia recognition, and fetal surveillance.

37
New cards

Why is a large infant of a diabetic mother at risk for hypoglycemia after birth?

Maternal glucose supply stops at delivery, but fetal insulin remains elevated.

38
New cards

What are the functions of amniotic fluid?

Cushions fetus, permits movement, supports lung development, and helps prevent cord compression.

39
New cards

How many vessels are in the normal umbilical cord?

Two arteries and one vein.

40
New cards

What AFI suggests oligohydramnios?

Less than 5 cm.

41
New cards

What is placenta previa?

Placenta located low near or covering the internal cervical os.

42
New cards

What is the classic bleeding pattern of placenta previa?

Painless bright red vaginal bleeding with a soft uterus.

43
New cards

What examination must be avoided until placenta previa is excluded?

Digital vaginal examination.

44
New cards

What is placental abruption?

Premature separation of the placenta.

45
New cards

What are classic signs of placental abruption?

Pain, tender/rigid uterus, frequent contractions, and bleeding that may be concealed.

46
New cards

What are the FIRST priorities in suspected abruption?

Urgent maternal stabilization and fetal monitoring; assess for hemorrhage/shock and prepare IV access and blood products as ordered.

47
New cards

What symptoms suggest ruptured ectopic pregnancy?

Shoulder-tip pain, syncope, tachycardia, and shock.

48
New cards

What is the priority for suspected ruptured ectopic pregnancy?

Emergency surgical evaluation and stabilization.

49
New cards

What is the guide's definition of preeclampsia?

New hypertension after 20 weeks with proteinuria; guide also lists severe organ findings.

50
New cards

What BP qualifies as severe-range in the chapter?

Systolic at least 160 OR diastolic at least 110 mmHg.

51
New cards

Which medication prevents/treats eclamptic seizures?

Magnesium sulfate.

52
New cards

A patient with preeclampsia has a seizure. What should the nurse do FIRST?

Call for help, protect from injury, position laterally when possible, and support airway/breathing.

53
New cards

What does HELLP stand for?

Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets.

54
New cards

A patient on magnesium has absent reflexes and depressed respirations. What is the FIRST action?

Stop/hold magnesium, call for urgent help, and support airway/breathing.

55
New cards

What is the antidote for magnesium toxicity?

Calcium gluconate.

56
New cards

What can high maternal AFP indicate?

Open neural tube/abdominal wall defect, incorrect dating, or multiple gestation.

57
New cards

When is chorionic villus sampling (CVS) commonly performed?

10–13 weeks.

58
New cards

When is amniocentesis typically performed?

15 weeks or later.

59
New cards

What makes an NST reactive at 32 weeks or later?

At least two FHR accelerations of at least 15 bpm lasting at least 15 seconds within 20 minutes.

60
New cards

What are the five components of a biophysical profile (BPP)?

NST, fetal breathing, movement, tone, and amniotic fluid.

61
New cards

What does BPP 8–10 generally mean?

Reassuring when amniotic fluid is normal.

62
New cards

What is a positive CST?

Late decelerations with at least 50% of contractions.

63
New cards

What is the purpose of RhoGAM?

Prevents anti-D antibody production in an unsensitized Rh-negative mother.

64
New cards

When is routine RhoGAM given according to the guide?

At 28 weeks and within 72 hours after delivery of an Rh-positive infant.

65
New cards

Which vaccines are listed as safe in the lecture?

Tdap, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, influenza, and COVID vaccines.

66
New cards

Which vaccines are listed as unsafe during pregnancy?

Live MMR and varicella vaccines.

67
New cards

What folic acid intake does the lecture recommend before conception/early pregnancy?

At least 400 mcg (0.4 mg) daily; higher-risk doses are prescribed.

68
New cards

What daily iron intake is listed during pregnancy?

27 mg/day; lecture also lists a 30-mg supplement.

69
New cards

Which foods/exposures does the lecture say to avoid during pregnancy?

Alcohol, raw/rare meat, raw shellfish/eggs, unwashed produce, high-mercury fish, unpasteurized soft cheeses, and deli meats.

70
New cards

How does physiologic anemia differ from iron-deficiency anemia?

Physiologic anemia is dilution from plasma expansion; iron-deficiency anemia reflects insufficient iron stores.

71
New cards

What distinguishes hyperemesis gravidarum from usual morning sickness?

Severe vomiting with poor intake, weight loss, dehydration, and possible electrolyte/acid-base disturbances or ketosis.

72
New cards

What treatment options are listed for hyperemesis?

IV replacement, antiemetics, and in selected cases TPN; assess nutritional deficiency including thiamine.

73
New cards

What findings show hyperemesis treatment is working?

Better intake and urine output, stable vitals/weight/electrolytes, and improved hydration.

74
New cards

What newborn complications can maternal GBS cause?

Neonatal sepsis and meningitis.

75
New cards

When does the lecture say GBS screening occurs?

35–37 weeks by vaginal/rectal culture.

76
New cards

What GBS intrapartum penicillin G loading dose does the guide list?

5 million units IVPB.

77
New cards

What GBS intrapartum penicillin G maintenance dose does the guide list?

2.5 million units every 4 hours until delivery.

78
New cards

What is preterm labor?

Regular contractions with cervical change after 20 weeks but before 37 weeks.

79
New cards

What warning symptoms suggest preterm labor?

Pelvic pressure, low backache, cramps, discharge change, and fluid leakage.

80
New cards

What is fetal fibronectin used for?

Assessing short-term birth risk in selected symptomatic patients.

81
New cards

Why is betamethasone given in threatened preterm birth?

Promotes fetal surfactant production and lung maturity.

82
New cards

What betamethasone dose/interval does the lecture list?

12 mg IM for two doses, 12–24 hours apart.

83
New cards

What is cognitive learning?

Knowledge learning; use discussion and teach-back.

84
New cards

What is psychomotor learning?

Skill learning; use demonstration, practice, and return demonstration.

85
New cards

What is affective learning?

Beliefs and attitudes; explore concerns and reassess readiness.

86
New cards

What is primary prevention? Give a pregnancy example.

Preventing illness; folic acid to reduce neural tube defects.

87
New cards

What is secondary prevention? Give a pregnancy example.

Early detection; gestational diabetes screening.

88
New cards

What is tertiary prevention? Give a pregnancy example.

Limiting complications of existing disease; diabetes management.

89
New cards

What is primordial prevention? Give an example.

Changing population conditions before risks develop; safer activity environments.

90
New cards

What does sensitivity measure?

Ability to identify people who have disease; low sensitivity misses cases.

91
New cards

What does specificity measure?

Ability to identify people without disease; low specificity produces false positives.

92
New cards

What is reliability?

Consistency of a measurement.

93
New cards

What is validity?

Accuracy of what is being measured.

94
New cards

What does the Health Belief Model emphasize?

Perceived risk/severity, benefits/barriers, and confidence affecting action.

95
New cards

What does Pender's model emphasize?

Wellness, experiences, and support.

96
New cards

What does Orem's model emphasize?

Self-care ability and deficits.

97
New cards

What does Maslow's hierarchy imply for nursing education?

Meet basic needs before higher-level learning.

98
New cards

A pregnant patient has severe headache, visual changes, and hypertension. What should the nurse suspect and do?

Suspect severe preeclampsia; urgently assess/escalate, confirm BP per protocol, assess neuro/lungs, obtain labs and fetal monitoring, and prepare ordered treatment.

99
New cards

How do classic previa and abruption cues differ?

Previa: painless bright red bleeding/soft uterus. Abruption: painful tender/rigid uterus with possible concealed bleeding.

100
New cards

How should a nurse evaluate whether an intervention worked?

Reassess the relevant cue: BP, respirations/reflexes, urine output, bleeding, glucose, hydration, fetal status, or demonstrated learning.