Disease Management Test 1

What is the focus of disease management frameworks

preventing disease detecting disease responding to disease and recovering after disease

What key questions do disease management frameworks address?

What actions occur? When do they occur? Who performs them?

Give an example of a disease management framework.

Outbreak response plans, integrated pest management, or biosecurity programs.

What is the focus of health governance frameworks?

Decision-making authority, policy creation, coordination mechanisms, resource allocation, and accountability.

What key questions do health governance frameworks address?

Who makes decisions? Who funds activities? Who has authority?

Provide an example of a health governance framework.

WHO international health regulations or USDA regulatory structures.

What is the focus of the Environmental Health framework?

Ecosystem health monitoring, vector/reservoir management, and food safety and security.

What are key factors in animal disease frameworks?

Producers, veterinarians, diagnostic laboratories, and state veterinarians.

What components are often seen in human disease frameworks?

Vaccination programs, health promotion activities, travel guidelines, and rehabilitation programs.

What are the components of the disease management cycle?

Risk assessment, prevention and preparedness, surveillance and detection, response and control, recovery, evaluation and adaptation.

What does risk assessment involve?

Identifying hazards, estimating likelihood of occurrence, and evaluating potential consequences.

What is the goal of prevention in disease management?

To stop disease emergence or spread through proactive interventions.

What tools are used in preparedness for disease management?

Stockpiling countermeasures, training response teams, and running outbreak simulations.

What is the focus of the response and control phase?

Stopping transmission/spread and minimizing immediate harm.

What is involved in the recovery phase of disease management?

Restoring systems like healthcare capacity, livestock production, and public trust.

What is the purpose of adaptation and evaluation in disease management?

To learn from past experiences and improve future responses.

What are the pros of a siloed disease management approach?

Clear authority, specialized expertise, and efficient routine operations.

What are the risks of a siloed disease management approach?

Poor information sharing, delayed detection, and duplicated efforts.

What are the advantages of an integrated disease management approach?

Shared surveillance, earlier detection, and coordinated response.

What are the limitations of an integrated disease management approach?

Jurisdictional barriers, funding differences, and data ownership concerns.

How do disease management frameworks differ for animals, humans, and the environment?

They have unique features while sharing similarities in structure and goals.

What is the definition of acute diseases?

Rapid, single event injuries or pathogen infections that are short-lived.

What characterizes chronic diseases?

Gradual onset, often silent, multifactorial, and long-lasting.

What defines communicable diseases?

Rapid, exposure-linked pathogen transmission, often acute.

What are shared modifiable risk factors in disease management?

Diet and nutrition, activity levels, toxin exposure, stress, and housing conditions.

What is the relative burden of infectious versus chronic diseases across the lifespan?

Chronic diseases require ongoing treatments and lifestyle changes to manage.

What is the socio-ecological model of health?

A framework that organizes conditions influencing health into nested levels: individual, interpersonal, community, institutional/system, and policy.

What are social determinants of health?

Concrete conditions that shape risk, including economic stability, housing, education, food access, and care access.

What is primary prevention?

Strategies that prevent disease before onset.

What is secondary prevention?

Strategies focused on early detection of diseases.

What is tertiary prevention?

Management of established disease to reduce complications.

How are pathogens classified by genetic material?

Pathogens can be classified as DNA viruses (more stable, slower mutation) or RNA viruses (rapid mutation, higher adaptability).

What characterizes enveloped viruses?

They have a lipid membrane, are fragile outside the host, and are sensitive to detergents and disinfectants.

What are non-enveloped viruses?

Viruses that lack a lipid envelope, are more environmentally stable, and survive longer on surfaces.

What is a narrow host range?

Pathogens that infect a limited number of host species, making them easier to eradicate.

What is a broad host range?

Pathogens that can infect multiple host species, making them harder to control.

Define a pathogen reservoir.

A place where a pathogen can persist between transmission events.

What is a vector in disease transmission?

An organism that transmits a pathogen between hosts without being harmed by the pathogen.

What is an amplifying host?

A host species where a pathogen replicates to high levels, increasing transmission to other hosts.

What is a bridge host?

A host species that facilitates transmission of a pathogen from a reservoir host to humans.

What is a dead-end host?

A host that can become infected but does not efficiently transmit the pathogen onward.

What factors affect environmental persistence of pathogens?

Temperature, UV exposure, desiccation, pH, and organic matter.

What is direct transmission?

Transmission where the pathogen moves directly from an infected host to a susceptible host.

What is indirect transmission?

Transmission where the pathogen reaches new hosts through an intermediate vehicle, vector, or environmental source.

What is horizontal transmission?

Spread of a pathogen between individuals of the same generation.

What is vertical transmission?

Transmission of a pathogen from parent to offspring.

What is vector competence?

The ability of a vector to acquire and transmit a pathogen.

What is vectoral capacity?

The potential of a vector population to transmit a pathogen to a host.

What is the significance of pathogen type in One Health surveillance?

Understanding pathogen type is crucial for developing effective treatments and interventions during outbreaks.

Describe the transmission cycle of West Nile virus.

Wild birds → mosquitoes (Culex) → wild birds; humans and horses are dead-end hosts.

What is the role of environmental reservoirs in pathogen persistence?

Pathogens can persist in nonliving environments through spores, encysted protozoa, and biofilms.

How do social networks influence health?

Interpersonal relationships and peer norms can affect individual health behaviors and access to resources.

What is the impact of economic stability on health?

Economic stability influences access to resources, healthcare, and overall health outcomes.

What is the primary reservoir for the Nipah virus?

Fruit bats (Pteropus)

How can humans become infected with the Nipah virus?

Through contaminated food/environment, direct contact with bats, or human-to-human transmission.

What is the classic transmission cycle for Yersinia pestis (plague)?

Infected rodent → flea → another rodent → human.

What are the two main forms of plague in humans?

Bubonic plague (infected flea to human) and pneumonic plague (infected human to respiratory droplets).

What is the role of pigs in the Nipah virus transmission cycle?

Pigs can act as amplifying hosts for the virus.

What is the primary transmission vector for Rift Valley fever virus (RVFV)?

Mosquitoes.

How do humans typically become infected with Rift Valley fever?

By contact with infected animal blood, tissues, or products, especially during slaughtering

What is the definitive host for Toxoplasma gondii?

Cats.

How can humans become infected with Toxoplasma gondii?

By eating undercooked meat, ingesting oocysts from contaminated sources, or congenital transmission.

What is the major environmental reservoir for Bacillus anthracis (anthrax)?

Soil containing highly resistant spores.

What is the classic transmission cycle for anthrax?

Infected animal dies → spores in soil → grazing animal → infection.

What is the dilution effect in relation to biodiversity and disease?

High biodiversity can protect against some diseases by reducing the proportion of infected vectors.

What is the amplification effect in relation to biodiversity and disease?

High biodiversity may increase the risk of some diseases by providing more competent hosts for pathogens.

How does land use change affect pathogen transmission?

It alters vector abundance, host behaviors, and increases human exposure to pathogens.

What are the ecological drivers of infectious disease emergence?

Loss of biodiversity, land use change, climate change, urbanization, and globalization.

What is spillover in the context of infectious diseases?

The transmission of a pathogen from its typical host species to a different host species.

What conditions facilitate pathogen spillover?

The infected reservoir host must shed the pathogen, and the recipient host must receive a sufficient dose to become infected.

What is the role of habitat fragmentation in disease transmission?

It creates edge environments where wildlife, livestock, and humans are more likely to interact, increasing transmission risk.

How can climate change impact infectious diseases?

It can alter temperature, humidity, and vector habitats, affecting pathogen survival and transmission dynamics.

What is the relationship between agricultural intensification and disease emergence?

It can increase nutrient runoff and environmental contamination, facilitating pathogen transmission.

What is the impact of urbanization on infectious disease dynamics?

It increases human presence in previously undisturbed habitats, raising exposure to pathogens.

What is the significance of chronic stress in animals regarding disease?

It can reduce immune response and increase pathogen shedding, facilitating transmission.

What is the main transmission vector for West Nile virus?

Culex mosquitoes.

Why are humans considered incidental hosts for Yersinia pestis?

Humans do not play a role in the normal wildlife maintenance cycle of the plague.

What is the role of livestock in the Rift Valley fever virus cycle?

Livestock can amplify the virus and facilitate transmission to mosquitoes and humans.

What is a reservoir host?

A species in which a pathogen can persist long-term without causing severe disease.

What is the primary method of transmission for Bacillus anthracis to humans?

Exposure to infected animals or contaminated animal products.

Define an amplifying host.

A host species where a pathogen replicates to high levels, increasing transmission to vectors or other hosts.

What role does a bridge host play in disease transmission?

A bridge host becomes infected by a reservoir host and facilitates transmission to humans.

What is a zoonotic disease?

A disease caused by a pathogen that has spilled over from an animal host into humans.

Define a vector in the context of infectious diseases.

An organism that transmits a pathogen between hosts without being harmed by the pathogen.

What is pathogen shedding?

The release of a pathogen from an infected host into the environment, enabling transmission to new hosts

What are direct diagnostic methods for infectious diseases?

Methods that detect the pathogen itself, its antigens, or molecular components.

Give examples of direct diagnostic methods.

Electron microscopy, PCR, and direct ELISA.

What are indirect diagnostic methods?

Methods that look for evidence of infection, such as specific antibodies.

List some indirect diagnostic methods.

Indirect ELISA, plaque reduction neutralization, and serum neutralization.

What are the advantages of culture-based diagnostics?

Cost-effective, provides live samples, and allows for antibiotic testing.

What are the disadvantages of culture-based diagnostics?

Slow turnaround time and risk of contamination.

What are the advantages of PCR diagnostics?

High sensitivity, specificity, and short turnaround time.

What is a limitation of PCR diagnostics?

It cannot prove the viability of the pathogen.

What are the advantages of Whole Genome Sequencing?

Tracks evolution, detects genetic resistance markers, and is culture-independent.

What is a disadvantage of Whole Genome Sequencing?

It is expensive and has a slow turnaround time.

What are the advantages of CRISPR diagnostics?

Single nucleotide precision and easy integration into point-of-care tests.

What are the limitations of CRISPR diagnostics?

Highly qualitative and restricted by multi-step clinical approval hurdles.

What is the importance of early detection in disease surveillance?

It leads to faster response times and reduces the number of infected individuals.

What are the societal impacts of emerging diseases?

Economic losses, public health response challenges, and resource allocation issues.

What factors drive the emergence of diseases?

Animal production, human behavior, pathogen mutation, and public health factors.