Chapter 15: Biopharmaceutic Considerations In Drug Product Design and In Vitro Drug Product Performance

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167 Terms

1
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Which of the following represents the correct sequence of events for the absorption process of an immediate-release tablet from ingestion to appearance in plasma?

Disintegration → Dissolution → Absorption

2
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For an immediate-release tablet, which step directly controls how fast the drug becomes available for absorption?

Dissolution

3
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Which of the following is NOT exempt from USP disintegration testing?

Immediate-release tablets

4
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When any residue, except fragments of insoluble coating, has no palpably firm core is the __________ test.

Disintegration

5
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Which of the following are the two most common dissolution test apparatuses?

Apparatus 1 (Basket) and Apparatus 2 (Paddle)

6
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According to the Biopharmaceutics Classification System (BCS), which class of drugs has high solubility and high permeability?

Class I

7
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Which BCS class of drugs is characterized by low solubility but high permeability, and often requires formulation strategies to improve dissolution?

Class II

8
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Which BCS class of drugs has high solubility but low permeability, meaning absorption is limited by the ability of the drug to cross biological membranes?

Class III

9
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Which BCS class of drugs exhibits both low solubility and low permeability, making them the most difficult to formulate for effective oral absorption?

Class IV

10
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BCS Class II drugs require strategies to enhance permeation because their permeability is low.

False

11
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BCS Class I drugs are highly soluble and highly permeable, and therefore are expected to have excellent oral absorption.

True

12
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BCS Class II drugs are limited by their rate of dissolution due to low solubility.

True

13
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Which equation describes the rate of dissolution of an immediate-release tablet in a solvent?

Noyes-Whitney equation

14
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According to the Noyes-Whitney equation, the rate of dissolution is directly proportional to which variable?

Surface area (A)

15
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In the Noyes-Whitney equation, if the surface area of the drug particles increases, what happens to the rate of dissolution?

increases

16
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In the Noyes-Whitney equation, the rate of dissolution is inversely proportional to which factor?

Thickness of the diffusion layer (h)

17
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If the difference between the saturation concentration (Cs) and the bulk concentration (C) increases, what happens to the dissolution rate?

increases

18
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The greater the solubility, the _______ dissolution rate.

Faster

19
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Which type of transport is the Noyes-Whitney equation describing?

Passive diffusion

20
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Which physicochemical property describes how well a drug dissolves in an aqueous medium such as intestinal fluid?

Drug solubility

21
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Decreasing the particle size of a poorly soluble drug _______ the dissolution rate.

increases

22
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Increasing the particle size of a poorly soluble drug _______ the dissolution rate.

decreases

23
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Which BCS class would benefit from decreasing the particle size to increase the surface area?

Class II

24
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Which form of a drug is not in a crystalline state?

Amorphous form

25
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Which crystalline form of a drug has charges due to ionization?

Salt form

26
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Which crystalline form of a drug can exist in multiple structural arrangements while remaining chemically identical?

Polymorph form

27
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Total solubility for a weak acid increases with ________ pH.

Higher

28
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Total solubility for a weak acid decreases with ________ pH.

Lower

29
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Total solubility for a weak base increases with ________ pH.

Lower

30
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Total solubility for a weak base decreases with ________ pH.

Higher

31
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The soluble salt form of a weak acid dissolves _______ than the corresponding free acid (neutral form).

Faster

32
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The soluble salt form of a weak base dissolves _______ than the corresponding free base (neutral form).

Faster

33
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Increased solubility _______ dissolution rate.

Increases

34
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Rate of dissolution of a weak acid increases with a _________ in pH and _______ in H⁺.

Increase in pH and decrease in H⁺

35
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Rate of dissolution of a weak base increases with a _________ in pH and _______ in H⁺.

Decrease in pH and increase in H⁺

36
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Ionized weak acid [A⁻] dissolves ______ than neutral [HA].

Faster

37
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Ionized weak base [BH⁺] dissolves ______ than neutral [B].

Faster

38
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Both solvates and hydrates involve the incorporation of solvent molecules into the crystalline lattice.

True

39
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An amorphous solid has _______ free energy than its corresponding crystalline solid.

Higher

40
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Because an amorphous solid has higher free energy than a crystalline solid, it also has _______ apparent solubility an dissolution rate.

Higher

41
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Reduction in particle size _______ surface area.

Increases

42
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Increase in surface area _______ dissolution rate.

Increases

43
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Which of the following crystalline forms typically has the higher solubility?

Amorphous form

44
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According to the Biopharmaceutics Classification System (BCS), a drug is considered highly soluble when the highest dose strength dissolves in _______ mL or less of aqueous media within a pH range of 1-6.8 at 37 ± 1 °C.

250 mL

45
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A drug is considered highly permeable when the systemic bioavailability or extent of absorption in humans is _______ or more of the administered dose.

85%

46
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A drug is considered highly permeable when its absorption in humans is less than 50% of the administered dose.

False

47
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Instead of human studies, researchers can use in vitro permeability predictor models such as _______ cells to estimate drug permeability.

Caco-2

48
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Which of the following is commonly used as a reference compound for high permeability in the Biopharmaceutics Classification System (BCS)?

Metoprolol

49
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Which BCS class do we want to improve dissolution to enhance oral absorption?

Class II

50
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Which BCS class requires no major challenges for oral absorption because it has both high solubility and high permeability?

Class I

51
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Which BCS class often requires the use of prodrugs or permeation enhancers to improve absorption?

Class III

52
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Which BCS class is typically not feasible for oral administration and is often given intravenously (IV)?

Class IV

53
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Which of the following excipients is specifically used in immediate-release tablets to facilitate tablet breakup and drug release?

Disintegrant

54
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Which of the following excipients is specifically used in extended-release tablets to modify or slow drug release?

Drug release-modifying agent

55
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Which of the following is a common disintegrant used in immediate-release tablets?

Croscarmellose sodium

56
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Which of the following is a common lubricant used to reduce friction during tablet manufacturing?

Magnesium stearate

57
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Which of the following is a common drug release-modifying agent used in extended-release formulations?

Methocel K4MP

58
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Which of the following is a common binder used to help powders form granules during tablet manufacturing?

Methocel E5 PLV

59
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Which of the following are common fillers used to increase tablet volume or weight?

Fast Flo lactose and microcrystalline cellulose

60
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Which of the following excipients increases Ka (absorption rate), decreases Tmax (occurs earlier), and increases AUC?

Disintegrant

61
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Disintegrants _______ Ka (absorption rate), _______ Tmax, and _______ AUC.

Increase, decrease, increase

62
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All other excipients besides disintegrants _______ Ka (absorption rate), _______ Tmax, and _______ AUC.

Decrease, increase, decrease

63
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Which type of formulation experiences flip-flop kinetics, where Ka < K?

Extended-release formulation

64
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Which formulation experiences delayed dissolution in the intestines where the pH is higher?

Enteric-coated formulation

65
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Lubricants can _______ drug dissolution in solution.

Decrease

66
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Enteric tablet coatings require _______ media to dissolve.

Basic

67
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Diluents ________ dissolution and ____________ bioavailability.

Increase, increase

68
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Magnesium stearate can coat particles and _______ dissolution when overmixed under high shear or temperature.

decrease

69
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Over-lubrication with magnesium stearate can lead to _______ dissolution and _______ tablet strength.

Slow, decreased

70
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Which type of formulation requires a basic medium to dissolve and is typically used to protect acid-sensitive active agents from gastric acidity?

Enteric-coated formulation

71
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Which type of formulation can protect the stomach lining from direct contact with irritating active agents?

Enteric-coated formulation

72
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Which equation explains dissolution for sustained drug release?

Higuchi equation

73
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Which equation explains dissolution for immediate-release drugs?

Noyes-Whitney equation

74
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Which equation uses the square root of time to describe dissolution?

Higuchi equation

75
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Which equation uses the first order of time to describe dissolution?

Noyes-Whitney equation

76
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In dissolution testing, Apparatus 1 (basket) is the most frequently used method.

False

77
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In dissolution testing, Apparatus 2 (paddle) is the most frequently used method.

True

78
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Apparatus 2 (paddle) is less commonly used than Apparatus 1 (basket) in dissolution testing.

False

79
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Which calibrator tablet represents a rapidly disintegrating immediate-release formulation?

Prednisone

80
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Which calibrator tablet represents a non-disintegrating sustained-release formulation?

Salicylic acid

81
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Which of the following is FALSE about a dissolution test?

Dissolution tests should vary each day to account for environmental changes

82
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If two dissolution profiles have an f₂ value between 50 and 100, they are considered _______.

Similar

83
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If two dissolution profiles have an f₂ value between 0 and 50, they are considered _______.

Different

84
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An f₂ value of 70 indicates that two dissolution profiles are considered similar.

True

85
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Which model-independent method is used to determine whether two dissolution profiles are similar or different?

Similarity factor (f₂)

86
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In vitro-in vivo correlation (IVIVC) links the drug's plasma concentration profile to its dissolution rate.

True

87
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What establishes a relationship between the clinical relevancy of the drug (plasma level) and a physicochemical property of the drug product, such as dissolution rate?

In vitro-in vivo correlation (IVIVC)

88
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Which pharmacokinetic (PK) parameters are most often used in IVIVC correlation with the in vitro dissolution profile?

Plasma concentration, AUC, and Cmax

89
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Which of the following is FALSE about in vitro-in vivo correlation (IVIVC) in drug development?

IVIVC eliminates the need for all in vivo studies

90
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Which category of in vitro-in vivo correlation (IVIVC) is a predictive mathematical model for the relationship between the entire in vitro release time course and the entire in vivo response time course?

Level A

91
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Which category of in vitro-in vivo correlation (IVIVC) is a predictive mathematical model for the relationship between summary parameters that characterize the in vitro and in vivo time courses?

Level B

92
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Which category of in vitro-in vivo correlation (IVIVC) matches this example: models that relate the mean in vitro dissolution time to the mean in vivo dissolution time?

Level B

93
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Which formulation is the in vitro-in vivo correlation (IVIVC) typically used to compare?

Sustained-release formulations

94
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What is the rate-limiting step in the drug absorption of a sustained-release tablet?

Dissolution

95
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When the dissolution rate is the rate-limiting step, it is often possible to establish a correlation between the rate of dissolution and the rate of absorption.

True

96
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Which formulation type is most likely to have a correlation between dissolution rate and absorption rate?

Sustained-release formulation

97
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If absorption is faster than dissolution, the dissolution rate has little effect on plasma drug levels.

False

98
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In sustained-release formulations, the rate of absorption is typically limited by the rate of dissolution or release of the drug.

True

99
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Which of the following correctly states when the IVIVC method can be used?

When the dissolution is the rate-limiting step in drug absorption

100
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In a Level A IVIVC, Step 1 involves calculating the fraction of drug absorbed in vivo over time.

True