EA-18G Growler Systems and Safety Fundamentals

Comprehensive review flashcards covering EA-18G Growler aircraft safety, handling, airframes, power plants, avionics, electrical, armament, ALSS/egress, and operational naval aviation fundamentals.

What are the designated danger areas on the EA-18G aircraft?

The canopy, seat, and DFIRS explosive devices, airframe and external stores locations, the engine, radar, antenna, exhaust, all movable surfaces, flammable liquids, and compressed gases.

What are the minimum safe distances from EA-18G engine intakes and exhaust at Idle, Military (MIL), and Maximum (MAX) power?

At Idle: $9\,\text{ft}$ from the intake and $115\text{--}155\,\text{ft}$ from the exhaust. At Military (MIL): $25\,\text{ft}$ from the intake and $325\text{--}725\,\text{ft}$ from the exhaust. At Maximum (MAX): $25\,\text{ft}$ from the intake and $850\text{--}925\,\text{ft}$ from the exhaust.

Where are the aircraft STEP/NO STEP areas located on the EA-18G, and what is their purpose?

They are located on the leading edge flaps, trailing edge flaps, horizontal stabilators, ailerons, and radome surfaces to avoid damaging composite material.

What safety precautions must be followed when applying and removing external electrical power on the EA-18G?

Ensure circuit breakers and switches are positioned to receive power, inspect the power cable and cable assembly for corrosion, ensure the power source is secured prior to application and removal, and verify the mobile power unit is chocked and facing away from the aircraft.

What are the exhaust temperatures and air velocities in the hazard zones during Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) operation?

At the exhaust center: approximately $328\text{--}350^\circ$ at $142\,\text{mph}$. Within a $13\text{-inch}$ radius: approximately $300\text{--}310^\circ$ at $71\,\text{mph}$. Within a $19\text{-inch}$ radius: approximately $259\text{--}295^\circ$ at $24\,\text{mph}$.

Under what conditions can maintenance requiring electrical power be performed on an aircraft displaying a WEAPONS LOADED placard?

Power application is limited to refueling, replacement and checkout of engine performance and flight instruments, low-power engine turn-up checkout, and flight control and hydraulic system checks. Power must never be applied to armament or weapon release/control circuitry while weapons are loaded.

What personal protective equipment is required when handling graphite or carbon/epoxy composite materials?

A respirator and close-weave cotton gloves.

How many tiedown points are on the EA-18G, and where are they located?

There are $12$ tiedown rings ($14$ on jacks): No. $1$ and No. $2$ on the nose landing gear; No. $3$ in door $16$; No. $4$ and No. $5$ on the outboard sides of the left and right main landing gear; No. $10$ and No. $11$ under the wings in doors $107\text{L}$ and $107\text{R}$; No. $12$ in door $164$; and No. $13$ and No. $14$ on the jacking beam.

What is the proper procedure for aircraft static grounding?

Grounding cables must be attached to a certified ground outlet for a common static earth ground first, then attached to an authorized grounding point on the aircraft.

What preparations and checks are required before towing an EA-18G?

Minimum structural access doors must be installed, radome closed and secured, hydraulic brake pressure verified at $2900\,\text{psi}$ minimum, doors $68\text{L/R}$ closed or removed, and all support equipment removed and obstacles cleared.

What is the purpose of landing gear aircraft ground safety pins?

To safety the nose and main landing gear in the down position, preventing accidental gear retraction.

What is the purpose of Hydraulic Fluid Contamination Analysis?

To determine fluid contaminant levels, ensuring a high level of fluid purity on Class $5$ aircraft and Class $3$ Ground Support Equipment (GSE).

What are the three operational modes of the EA-18G wheel brake system?

Normal, Emergency, and Parking.

How are Temporary Repair, One Time Flight repair, and Permanent Repair differentiated?

Temporary Repair is simple and practical, restoring full load-carrying capabilities until permanent repair. One Time Flight repair restores limited load-carrying requirements to fly the aircraft to a repair station. Permanent Repair meets or exceeds original structural strength with no adverse effects on structural integrity, fatigue life, safety, or flying characteristics.

What are the structural boundaries of the EA-18G Forward, Center, and Aft Fuselage sections?

Forward Fuselage: end of the radome to the aft edge of panel $96$. Center Fuselage: forward edge of panel $26$ to aft edge of panel $55\text{L/R}$. Aft Fuselage: from panel $62\text{L/R}$ to the exhaust nozzles.

How do the ailerons, rudders, and LEX spoilers function on the EA-18G?

Ailerons deflect asymmetrically for roll, symmetrically down for takeoff/landing lift, and symmetrically up for speed brake deceleration. Rudders provide yaw control, takeoff/landing lift and stability, and speed brake deceleration. LEX spoilers deflect collectively as a speed brake and provide a high nose-down pitch moment when transitioning from high angles of attack.

What are the operational responsibilities of Hydraulic System 1 (HS1) and Hydraulic System 2 (HS2)?

HS1 provides hydraulic fluid pressure to primary flight controls as a primary or backup source. HS2 provides hydraulic pressure to primary flight controls (as primary or backup) and supplies pressure to all non-flight control systems.

How is emergency extension of the EA-18G landing gear accomplished?

Extension is primarily a free fall aided by Hydraulic System No. $2\text{B}$ (emergency) pressure from the APU accumulator, which unlocks uplocks and door hooks to aid in down locking, operated via the LDG GEAR control.

What is the architecture and redundancy of the Flight Controls Electronics Set (FCES)?

It is a digital, quadruplex, fly-by-wire, full authority control augmentation system (CAS) containing four digital computers working in parallel across two roll-pitch-yaw computer WRAs (two channels per WRA).

What engine model powers the EA-18G, and what is its configuration?

The $\text{F414-GE-400}$, a low bypass, axial flow, dual-spool turbofan engine of modular construction with afterburner.

What are the three operational modes of the EA-18G Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)?

Main Engine Start (MES), Ground Maintenance Mode (GMM), and Environmental Control System (ECS) mode.

What is the function and mechanical/pneumatic connection of the Airframe Mounted Accessory Drive (AMAD)?

Located behind doors $53\text{L}$ and $53\text{R}$, each AMAD connects to an engine via a power transmission shaft (PTS) and to the APU via an air turbine starter (ATS) to drive the boost pump, ATS, hydraulic pump, and generator converter unit.

What is the function of the Full Authority Digital Electronic Control (FADEC)?

It adjusts engine control schedules for optimum performance across flight conditions and throttle settings while integrating with mission computers, flight control computers, and throttles to control, monitor, and report engine status.

How does the Variable Exhaust Nozzle (VEN) system operate?

It uses a series of interlocking flaps, seals, and linkages to form a convergent-divergent ejector nozzle that modulates open and closed with engine rpm to maintain exhaust gas temperature and power levels within limits.

How does the EA-18G maintain fuel center of gravity (CG)?

Electrical fuel pumps in the No. $1$ and No. $4$ fuel transfer tanks transfer fuel through a manifold to keep the No. $2$ and No. $3$ engine feed tanks replenished as fuel is consumed.

What hazard radius and time duration apply to engine ground turn-up operations?

Personnel must stay $9\,\text{ft}$ away from inlets at Idle and $25\,\text{ft}$ at MIL/MAX; the area immediately aft of the tailpipes remains hazardous for $15\,\text{minutes}$ after engine shutdown.

What are the radar separation distances required during aircraft fueling and defueling?

Fueling and defueling must not take place within $100\,\text{ft}$ of operating airborne radio or air radar equipment, or within $300\,\text{ft}$ of ground radar equipment.

What is the difference between Azimuth and Bearing?

Azimuth is a horizontal angle measuring direction from a fixed point (usually true north) in a clockwise direction. Bearing is the direction of an object from an observer measured from $0^\circ\text{ to }359^\circ$ clockwise (True, Magnetic, or Relative).

How do the Barometric Altimeter and Radar Altimeter (RADALT) determine altitude?

The Barometric Altimeter measures atmospheric pressure to indicate altitude above Mean Sea Level (MSL). The RADALT measures absolute altitude above ground or water using the round-trip travel time of an RF pulse.

How do fiber optic cables transmit data on the EA-18G and at what speed?

Data is transmitted as pulses of light (photons) through glass fibers using pulse code modulation (PCM), where light ON represents '$1$' and light OFF represents '$0$', traveling at the speed of light ($186,000\,\text{mi/s}$).

What are the four operating modes of the EA-18G tactical data link system?

Automatic Carrier Landing (ACL) mode, Vector (VEC) mode, Waypoint mode, and Alignment (ALGN) mode.

What are the primary functions of the APG-79 Active Electronically Scanned Array (AESA) radar?

Detection and tracking of air and surface targets, air-to-ground (A/G) mapping, and terrain avoidance for navigation.

What are the components of the ALQ-218 Tactical Jamming System Receiver (TJSR)?

Nine WRAs, twenty antenna units (AU), six power dividers (PD), the Wing Tip Pods (WTP), AEA Pallet, and Electronic Attack Unit (EAU).

What are the primary structural and electronic components of the AN/ALQ-249 (NGJ) pod?

Center Barrel Structure, Active Electronic Scan Array (AESA), Embedded RAT Generator (RATG), Power/Servo Units, and Common Electronics Unit.

What are the dimensions and display capabilities of the EA-18G Digital Display Indicators (DDIs)?

The DDIs are four interchangeable $5 \times 5\text{-inch}$ LCD displays (two forward, two aft) that are NVIS compatible; the left DDI (LDDI) provides full-color capability.

What radio frequencies and battery life are specified for the Deployable Flight Incident Recorder Set (DFIRS)?

It transmits dual signals on the military UHF guard frequency of $243\,\text{Hz}$ and the COSPAS/SARSAT $406\,\text{Hz}$ signal, powered by an internal battery that operates the beacon for $72\,\text{hours}$.

Where are the eight EA-18G electroluminescent Formation Light panels located?

Two on each side of the forward fuselage, two on the aft fuselage, one on the outboard side of each vertical stabilator, and two on each ALQ-218 wingtip pod.

What altitude display elements make up the Standby Pressure Altimeter?

A pointer display from $0\text{ to }1000\,\text{ft}$ in $50\text{-ft}$ increments, a drum display with two movable digits indicating $1000\text{-ft}$ increments to $99,000\,\text{ft}$, and a four-digit display indicating barometric pressure in inches of mercury.

What are the primary AC and DC power ratings on the EA-18G electrical system?

AC Power: two generators providing $115/200\,\text{vac}$, $3\text{ phase}$, $400\,\text{Hz}$ variable speed constant frequency (VSCF). DC Power: two $150\,\text{A}$, $28\,\text{vdc}$ power supplies converting AC power.

What is the role of the Nose Wheelwell Digital Display Indicator (NWDDI)?

Located on the nose wheelwell left bulkhead, it is manually activated by maintenance personnel to display low consumables data and stored maintenance codes independently of the digital data computer.

Which pylon assemblies correspond to Stations 6, Stations 3/4/8/9, and Stations 2/10 on the EA-18G?

SUU-78 Centerline Pylon is on Station $6$; SUU-79 Wing Pylon series is on inboard/midboard Stations $3$, $4$, $8$, and $9$; SUU-80 Wing Pylon is on outboard Stations $2$ and $10$.

How does the BRU-32 Bomb Ejector Rack operate its primary and auxiliary release mechanisms?

The primary ejection unit uses two impulse cartridges to generate gas pressure for ejection; the auxiliary release unit uses one impulse cartridge to open hooks only if primary ejection fails.

Which impulse cartridges (CADs) are used for auxiliary store ejection and countermeasures dispensing?

The MK 19 Mod 0 Impulse Cartridge is used for auxiliary ejection on the BRU-32 bomb rack, and the CCU-136/A Impulse Cartridge is used for ejecting chaff and flares.

What do the identification colors Yellow, Brown, and Blue represent on naval ordnance?

Yellow identifies high explosives, Brown identifies rocket motors, and Blue identifies ammunition used for practice.

How do Active, Semiactive, and Passive missile homing guidance systems differ?

Active Homing supplies target illumination from the missile's own transmitter. Semiactive Homing receives target reflections illuminated by an external source, such as the launching aircraft. Passive Homing homes entirely on energy emitted by the target, such as infrared heat or ground radar transmissions.

What are the two positions and functions of the Integrated Countermeasures (ICM) Safety Switch?

Located on the left forward fuselage; the extended (SAFE) position inhibits all countermeasures dispensing, and the flush (ARM) position enables dispensing.

What guidance methods are used by the AIM-120 AMRAAM during flight?

Inertial midcourse guidance receives targeting data link updates from the launching aircraft, followed by an active radar seeker for terminal phase tracking.

What is the mission profile of the AGM-88 HARM and AGM-88E AARGM?

They are supersonic air-to-ground guided missiles designed to detect, acquire, track, home on, and destroy enemy radar installations associated with air defense systems.

What is the physiological difference between Hypoxia and Anoxia?

Hypoxia is a deficiency of oxygen delivery to the organs resulting from reduced oxygen partial pressure (occurring above $10,000\,\text{ft}\text{ MSL}$). Anoxia is a complete lack of oxygen delivery to the organs, leading to death.

What are the performance ratings of the MBU-23 oxygen mask and CRU-103A/P regulator?

The MBU-23 mask provides optimal sealing and $+600\text{-knot}$ windblast protection; the CRU-103A/P is a chest-mounted, positive pressure, g-modulated demand oxygen regulator.

What is the function of the Parachute Harness Sensing Release Unit (PHSRU)?

It is a seawater-activated release system that provides automatic backup separation of the parachute from the aircrew upon water entry.

How does the SJU17A Mk14 (NACES) ejection seat operate upon pulling the control handle?

Pulling the handle fires two cartridges generating ballistic gas pressure, which initiates canopy jettison, activates the electronic sequencer and seat restraints, and fires the seat catapult after an escape system delay.

What hazard must be avoided when making a ground emergency cut into the EA-18G canopy?

Never cut into the canopy metal frame because the mounted canopy jettison rocket motors can be ignited by the axe or power saw blade, causing fatal or severe injuries; cuts must be made strictly through the acrylic transparency.

What components make up the Dry Bay Fire Suppression System (DBFSS), and where are they located?

The DBFSS consists of $14$ optical fire detectors (OFDs) in the center tunnel directly below fuel tanks $2$, $3$, and $4$; dry bay extinguishers (DBEs) in the center tunnel near the bottom access doors; and a fire suppression control alarm (FSCA) behind door $22\text{L}$.

What extinguishing agent and pressure charge are utilized in the EA-18G fire extinguishing system?

The extinguishing tank is charged with HFC-125 and nitrogen pressurized to $600\,\text{psi}$.

What are the components of the Cabin Pressure and OBOGS Monitoring System (CPOMS)?

The Cabin Pressure Altimeter (CPA), the Nose Wheelwell pressure sensor (NWW), and the OBOGS Concentrator Outlet Pressure Sensor (COPS).

What are the specifications and capacity duration of the EA-18G emergency oxygen system?

A $100\,\text{cubic inch}$ cylinder on the seat platform; it activates automatically during ejection via a lanyard (or manually via a green handle) and provides oxygen for $7\,\text{minutes}$ in a calm state or $5\,\text{minutes}$ if panicked.

In naval aviation flight rules, what do IMC, VMC, IFR, and VFR stand for?

IMC: Instrument Meteorological Conditions. VMC: Visual Meteorological Conditions. IFR: Instrument Flight Rules. VFR: Visual Flight Rules.

How does the Improved Fresnel Lens Optical Landing System (IFLOLS) differ from the FLOLS?

The IFLOLS features $7$ additional cells (for a total of $12$), providing a higher definition, more sensitive visual glideslope reference usable out to $1.5\,\text{nm}$.

What is the military definition of Command and Control Warfare (C2W)?

The integrated use of psychological operations (PSYOP), military deception, operations security (OPSEC), electronic warfare (EW), and physical destruction, mutually supported by intelligence, to deny information to, influence, degrade, or destroy the adversary.