VIA Revision Series 2026 (MSK)

What are the three main functions of the pelvis?

Transfer of weight, attachment for locomotion muscles/ligaments, and protection of viscera.

What bones make up the pelvis?

Two hip bones, the sacrum, and the coccyx.

What are the main points of articulation of the pelvis?

Two sacroiliac joints, pubic symphysis, sacrococcygeal symphysis, and hip joint.

What muscle originates behind the posterior gluteal line of the iliac wing?

Gluteus maximus.

Which gluteal muscles are located between the posterior and anterior gluteal lines?

Gluteus medius.

Which gluteal muscle is located between the anterior and inferior gluteal lines?

Gluteus minimus.

What muscle originates between the acetabulum and inferior gluteal line?

Rectus femoris.

What structures originate from the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)?

Inguinal ligament and sartorius.

What structures attach to the anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS)?

Straight head of rectus femoris and iliofemoral ligament.

What is a clinical landmark located one third of the distance between the ASIS and the umbilicus?

McBurney's point.

What muscle and ligaments attach to the posterior superior iliac spine (PSIS)?

Multifidus, gluteus maximus, sacroiliac ligaments, and sacrotuberous ligament.

What ligament attaches to the posterior inferior iliac spine (PIIS)?

Sacrotuberous ligament.

What are the clinical uses of the pubic tubercle?

Localising the superficial inguinal ring and the femoral canal.

Which muscle has partial origin on the superior pubic ramus and posterior aspect?

Levator ani and obturator internus.

What muscles originate from the ischial tuberosity?

Inferior gemellus, hamstrings, and quadratus femoris.

What muscle originates from the ischial spine?

Superior gemellus muscle.

How many segments typically fuse to form the adult sacrum?

5 segments.

What part of the sacrum articulates with the fifth lumbar vertebra (L5)?

The body.

What part of the sacrum articulates inferiorly with the coccyx?

The apex.

What structure is a vestigial tail formed by 3 to 5 fused vertebrae in humans?

The coccyx.

Where does the filum terminale of the spinal cord end?

At the first coccygeal vertebra (Co1).

What are the primary functions of the sacroiliac joint?

Aids in load transfer between spine and lower limb, and acts as a shock absorber.

What type of joint is the pubic symphysis?

A cartilaginous joint that permits only slight movement.

What is the function of the acetabular labrum?

Deepens the hip socket and increases surface area by roughly 10 to 20 percent.

Which artery supplies the gluteus maximus?

Inferior gluteal artery.

What artery is the main blood supply for the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fascia lata?

Superior gluteal artery.

What structures pass through the obturator canal?

Obturator nerve and vessels.

What structures pass through the lesser sciatic foramen?

Obturator internus tendon/nerve and internal pudendal vessels/nerve.

What nerve and vessels pass superiorly to the piriformis in the greater sciatic foramen?

Superior gluteal nerve and vessels.

What structures pass inferiorly to the piriformis in the greater sciatic foramen?

Inferior gluteal nerve/vessels, sciatic nerve, posterior femoral cutaneous nerve, internal pudendal vessels/nerve, and nerve to quadratus femoris.

What are the contents of the vascular space (lacuna vasorum) of the retroinguinal space?

Femoral vasculature and the femoral canal.

What are the contents of the muscular space (lacuna musculorum) of the retroinguinal space?

Iliopsoas muscles and the femoral nerve.

What is the most common location for a femoral hernia sac to protrude?

The retroinguinal space (femoral ring/canal area).

What are the boundaries of the femoral triangle?

Superior: inguinal ligament; Lateral: sartorius; Medial: adductor longus.

What are the contents of the femoral triangle from lateral to medial?

Femoral nerve, femoral artery, femoral vein, empty space (canal), and lymphatics.

What are the boundaries of the adductor canal?

Anterolateral: vastus medialis; Anteromedial: subsartorial fascia; Posteromedial: adductor longus and magnus.

What are the six muscles responsible for external rotation of the hip (short rotators)?

Piriformis, superior gemellus, inferior gemellus, obturator internus, obturator externus, and quadratus femoris.

What muscles form the triceps coxae?

Obturator internus, superior gemellus, and inferior gemellus.

What is the primary action of the gluteus maximus?

Powerful hip extensor, and stabilises the knee and thigh via the iliotibial band.

What is the primary action of the gluteus medius and minimus?

Abduction and medial rotation of the thigh, and stabilising the pelvis during gait.

What are the muscles of the anterior compartment of the thigh?

Iliopsoas, sartorius, pectineus, and the quadriceps femoris.

What nerve innervates the anterior compartment of the thigh?

Femoral nerve.

What four muscles make up the quadriceps femoris?

Rectus femoris, vastus medialis, vastus lateralis, and vastus intermedius.

What are the muscles of the medial compartment of the thigh?

Adductor magnus, adductor longus, adductor brevis, and gracilis.

What nerve primarily innervates the medial compartment of the thigh?

Obturator nerve.

What are the muscles of the posterior compartment of the thigh (hamstrings)?

Biceps femoris, semimembranosus, and semitendinosus.

What nerve innervates the posterior compartment of the thigh?

Sciatic nerve (tibial and common fibular divisions).

What is the main artery supplying the thigh region?

Femoral artery.

What are the major superficial veins of the lower limb?

Great saphenous vein and small saphenous vein.

What four bones make up the knee joint?

Tibia, fibula, femur, and patella.

Which bone in the leg is always lateral?

The fibula.

Which way does the patella usually dislocate, and why?

Laterally, because the lateral femoral trochlea is less prominent.

What are the two crescent-shaped fibrocartilage structures that act as shock absorbers in the knee?

Menisci (medial and lateral menisci).

What does the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) prevent?

Posterior displacement of the tibia on a fixed femur.

What does the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) prevent?

Anterior displacement of the tibia on a fixed femur.

What structures are torn in the 'unhappy triad'?

ACL, medial collateral ligament (MCL), and medial meniscus.

What is a Baker's cyst?

A posterior outpouching of fluid at the level of the popliteal fossa due to increased synovial fluid production or leakage.

What are four hallmark radiographic features of osteoarthritis?

Loss of joint space, osteophytes, subchondral sclerosis, and subchondral cysts.

What are the four superficial posterior muscles of the leg?

Gastrocnemius, soleus, plantaris, and popliteus.

Which muscle forms the Achilles tendon along with the gastrocnemius?

Soleus.

What nerve innervates the anterior compartment of the leg?

Deep fibular (peroneal) nerve.

What nerve innervates the lateral compartment of the leg?

Superficial fibular (peroneal) nerve.

What nerve innervates the posterior compartment of the leg?

Tibial nerve.

Why is leg compartment syndrome considered a surgical emergency?

Because leg fascia is rigid and cannot expand, causing rising pressure that decreases perfusion and risks irreversible damage.

What is the order of likelihood and severity for lateral ankle sprains?

ATFL then CFL then PTFL.

How many vertebrae make up the vertebral column?

33 vertebral bones.

What are the four main functions of the vertebral column (MAPS)?

Movement and posture, central axis of the body, protection of spinal cord, and supporting body weight.

What are the two main types of spinal curvature?

Kyphosis (bearing outwards/anteriorly) and lordosis (bearing inwards/posteriorly).

What is the primary shock-absorbing fibrocartilaginous joint between vertebral bodies?

Intervertebral disc.

What are the two main parts of an intervertebral disc?

Anulus fibrosus and nucleus pulposus.

Which vertebra is known as the Atlas (C1)?

The first cervical vertebra, which lacks a vertebral body and spinous process and supports the skull.

Which vertebra is known as the Axis (C2)?

The second cervical vertebra, characterised by the dens (odontoid process) which allows head rotation.

What is the prominent spinous process of C7 often called?

Vertebra prominens.

What is the characteristic feature of typical cervical vertebrae (C3-C6)?

Small rectangular bodies, split (bifid) spinous processes, and transverse foramina.

What is the characteristic feature of typical thoracic vertebrae?

Heart-shaped bodies and costal facets for rib articulation.

What is the characteristic feature of typical lumbar vertebrae?

Largest vertebral bodies with a triangular-shaped foramen and short, sturdy spinous processes.

Which spinal ligament prevents hyperextension of the spine?

Anterior longitudinal ligament.

Which spinal ligament resists hyperflexion and prevents posterior herniation of the nucleus pulposus?

Posterior longitudinal ligament.

What are the intrinsic muscles of the back primarily responsible for?

Maintaining posture and producing movements of the vertebral column and head.

What nerve innervates the trapezius muscle?

Accessory nerve (CN XI) for motor, and C3-C4 for sensory.

What is the primary function of the latissimus dorsi?

Arm internal rotation, adduction, and extension.

What is the mnemonic for the erector spinae muscles from lateral to medial?

I Like Standing (Iliocostalis, Longissimus, Spinalis).

Where is a lumbar puncture or epidural typically performed to avoid damaging the spinal cord?

At the level of L3-L4.

What layers must be pierced during a lumbar puncture, in order from superficial to deep?

Skin, subcutaneous tissue, supraspinous ligament, interspinous ligament, ligamentum flavum, dura mater, and arachnoid mater.

What is medial scapular winging typically caused by?

Paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle due to injury of the long thoracic nerve.

What are the four rotator cuff muscles (SITS)?

Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis.

Which nerve innervates the deltoid and teres major muscles?

Axillary nerve.

What is the most common direction for a shoulder dislocation?

Anterior-inferior.

Which nerve is at risk in a surgical neck fracture of the humerus or anterior-inferior shoulder dislocation?

Axillary nerve.

What are the three muscles of the anterior compartment of the arm (flexors)?

Biceps brachii, brachialis, and coracobrachialis.

What nerve innervates the anterior compartment of the arm?

Musculocutaneous nerve.

What nerve innervates the posterior compartment of the arm (triceps brachii)?

Radial nerve.

What are the boundaries of the cubital fossa?

Superior: line between epicondyles; Medial: pronator teres; Lateral: brachioradialis.

What is the mnemonic for the contents of the cubital fossa from medial to lateral?

My Brother Throws Rad Parties (Median nerve, Brachial artery, Biceps tendon, Radial nerve).

What nerve innervates most of the flexor-pronator muscles in the anterior compartment of the forearm?

Median nerve.

What nerve innervates the posterior compartment of the forearm (extensors)?

Radial nerve.

What test checks for median nerve injury by asking the patient to make an 'OK' sign?

The AIN (anterior interosseous nerve) sign, assessing FPL and FDP to the index finger.

What hand deformity is characteristic of a ulnar nerve injury?

Claw hand (hyperextension at MCP and flexion at IP joints of the 4th and 5th digits).

What is the characteristic presentation of a radial nerve injury at the midshaft of the humerus?

Wrist drop (inability to extend the wrist and fingers).

What carpal bone is most frequently injured in a FOOSH (fall onto outstretched hand), carrying a high risk of avascular necrosis?

The scaphoid bone.