Zuku VTNE Review

Lipemia

What would you expect to see in the plasma of a dog who just ate a can of dog food?

A - Hemolysis

B - Low glucose

C - Increased total protein

D - Icterus

E - Lipemia

A decrease in white blood cells

Which one of the following choices is the correct definition of leukopenia?

A - An increase in platelets

B - A decrease in white blood cells

C - Decrease in percentage of neutrophils

D - Increased erythrocytes

E - Increase in lymphocyte numbers

The antibiotic prevents bacterial growth

What does a "zone of inhibition" indicate when using the Kirby-Bauer disc diffusion method?

A - The antibiotic prevents bacterial growth

B - The disc inhibits fungal spread across the corneal surface

C - Need to reinoculate the culture plate

D - Radiographic evidence that dog needs surgical therapy for intervertebral disc disease

E - Catheter was placed subcutaneously rather than intravenously

Magnesium ammonium phosphate

What is another name for struvite crystals in the urine?

A - Calcium oxalate monohydrate

B - Urate monohydrate

C - Calcium carbonate

D - Amorphous phosphate

E - Magnesium ammonium phosphate

33% of PCV

Hemoglobin concentration is roughly what percentage of red blood cell packed cell volume (PCV) in most normal pets and domestic animals?

A - 25% of PCV

B - 33% of PCV

C - 50% of PCV

D - 10% of PCV

Kidney function

What organ function is creatinine used as an indirect measure of on a blood chemistry panel?

A - Pancreatic function

B - Bone marrow function

C - Blood alanine levels

D - Kidney function

E - Liver function

Glucose decreases

Which one of the following changes to the blood chemistry can occur if you leave a blood sample sitting too long prior to spinning it down and separating the serum from the cells?

A - Bicarbonate increases

B - Sodium increases

C - Phosphorus decreases

D - Potassium decreases

E - Glucose decreases

Aggregate

When evaluating feline reticulocytes on a complete blood cell count, which kind of reticulocytes are counted?

A - Punctate

B - Aggregate

C - Spherocytic

D - Poikilocytic

E - Target cells

Sheep, horse

In temperate North America, one animal is seasonally polyestrous (multiple estrus cycles) in the winter when the weather is COLD and the other animal is seasonally polyestrous in the spring and summer when weather is WARM.

Both give birth in the spring.

Which animals are these?

A - Cow, pig

B - Cow, goat

C - Sheep, cat

D - Dog, horse

E - Sheep, horse

Permanent premolar 1 (P1)

You are called to help examine a six-year-old Appaloosa gelding.

The owner is worried because the horse seems sensitive and head-shy when he has a bit in his mouth.

On physical exam you note a prominent pair of wolf teeth.

What, anatomically, is an equine wolf tooth?

A - Permanent incisor 3 (I3)

B - Deciduous canine (Dc)

C - Deciduous premolar 1 (Dp1)

D - Permanent canine (C)

E - Permanent premolar 1 (P1)

Air

Which one of these contrast media is radiolucent?

A - Diatrizoate

B - Iodine

C - Thorium

D - Barium

E - Air

Anti-emesis, vasodilation

Which of the following choices are effects of acepromazine in dogs and cats?

A - Muscle relaxation, analgesia

B - Anti-emesis, vasodilation

C - Sedation, piloerection

D - Anti-arrhythmic, hypertension

E - Increase blood pressure, muscle tremors

Patient movement

Which one of the following choices may cause a radiograph to come out blurry?

A - kVp too low

B - Static electricity

C - Focal-film distance too short

D - mAs too high

E - Patient movement

Guinea pig

Which animal is particularly vulnerable to vitamin C deficiency (scurvy)?

A - Rabbit

B - Rat

C - Guinea pig

D - Cat

42 by 7 months

By what age should a dog have all its permanent teeth, and how many teeth are in the canine adult dental formula?

A - 42 by 7 months

B - 44 by 20 months

C - 36-44 by 5 years

D - 32 by 4 years

E - 30 by 7 months

18-24 hours

How long after birth does gut closure typically occur in calves and foals?

(when protective maternal antibodies can no longer be absorbed from the gut into the bloodstream)

A - 18-24 hours

B - 9-12 hours

C - 1-3 hours

D - 15-18 hours

E - 3-6 hours

Penis protrusion

What side effect is often seen in horses tranquilized with acepromazine?

A - Diarrhea

B - Collapse

C - Vomiting

D - Penis protrusion

E - Hives

20 ml

How many cc of 5% Ultra-mycin should you give PO for 44 lb. dog, if the dose is 50 mg/kg?

A - 20 ml

B - 4 ml

C - 15 ml

D - 10 ml

E - 40 ml

Excess scatter radiation

Which factor would contribute to making an x-ray film come out too gray?

A - Vibration in the Potter-Bucky diaphragm

B - Static electricity

C - Prolonged exposure time

D - Uneven temperature in developing tanks

E - Excess scatter radiation

Hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing's disease)

What is one of the most common long-term problems associated using glucocorticoids like prednisolone in dogs?

A - Lupus

B - Hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing's disease)

C - Hypothyroidism

D - Diabetes insipidus

E - Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease)

Disrupts gram-positive gut flora

Why are most oral antibiotics contraindicated in rabbits and hamsters?

A - Significant cardiovascular effects

B - Disrupts gram-positive gut flora

C - Causes excessive vomiting

D - Highly permeable blood-brain barrier

E - Highly sensitive to renal toxicity

Crystalloids are electrolytes in water, colloids are crystalloids with high molecular weight polymers added

What is the main difference between crystalloid and colloid types of intravenous fluids?

A - The addition of proteins to a crystalloid makes it a colloid

B - Crystalloids are electrolytes in water, colloids are crystalloids with high molecular weight polymers added

C - Crystalloids prevent fluid loss out of the circulation, colloids are used for maintenance fluid therapy

D - Colloids are albumin and globulins, crystalloids are 5% dextrose and normal saline

Hypoproteinemia

Which of the following problems is most responsive to the intravenous infusion of a colloid?

A - Hyperglobulinemia

B - Cardiogenic shock

C - Hypoproteinemia

D - Hemorrhagic hypotension

Mannitol or hypertonic saline IV

Which one of the following therapies would be most useful to treat a dog with suspected head trauma and cerebral edema?

A - Phenobarbital

B - Mannitol or hypertonic saline IV

C - Sodium bicarbonate, then CSF tap

D - Isoproterenol

Pretreat with topical lidocaine

How can laryngospasms be prevented during anesthetic induction in cats?

A - Avoid inhalant anesthesia

B - Administer atropine 15 minutes prior to induction

C - Use a Murphy tube

D - Give acepromazine one hour prior to induction

E - Pretreat with topical lidocaine

Panleukopenia, feline herpesvirus-1, calicivirus

According to the most current AAFP recommendations, which three vaccines should household pet cats routinely receive, in addition to rabies and feline leukemia vaccinations?

A - Bordatella bronchiseptica, feline immunodeficiency virus, dermatophyte

B - Panleukopenia, feline herpesvirus-1, calicivirus

C - Feline infectious peritonitis, dermatophyte, calicivirus

D - Feline viral rhinotracheitis, Mycoplasma felis, Chlamydophilia felis

E - Intranasal feline herpesvirus, feline parvovirus, pneumonitis

Horse, Cow, Goat, Pig, Dog

Which choice lists these animal types in order of gestation length, from longest to shortest pregnancy?

A - Cow, Horse, Pig, Dog, Goat

B - Horse, Cow, Goat, Pig, Dog

C - Cow, Horse, Pig, Goat, Dog

D - Llama, Pig, Sheep, Ferret, Cat

Patient stopped breathing

During post-surgical recovery from a routine ovariohysterectomy (OHE) in a dog, the patient becomes apneic.

What does this mean?

A - Patient stopped breathing

B - Body temperature dropped

C - Heart murmur developed

D - Straining to defecate

Least traumatic

There are three kinds of ultrasonic scaler: magnetorestrictive, piezoelectric and sonic.

What is the advantage of a piezoelectric scaler over the other two kinds?

A - Least traumatic

B - No pitting of enamel

C - Quieter

D - No heat build-up

Brain damage, animal too deeply anesthetized

Which of the following choices is a common cause of the Cheyne-Stokes breathing pattern?

(Fast breathing, then slowing down, then no breathing, then cycle starts again).

A - Pulmonary hypertension and emphysema

B - Hypovolemia and low intracranial pressure

C - Brain damage, animal too deeply anesthetized

D - Light levels (phase I) of inhalant anesthesia

E - Severe metabolic acidosis, Diabetic ketoacidosis

Thick body parts

Which kind of tissue causes the most x-ray scatter?

A - Joints 8 cm thick or less

B - Thin body parts

C - Delicate bone, like nasal area

D - Thick body parts

Rongeur

Which instrument is used to cut or bite away small pieces of bone?

A - Rongeur

B - Backhaus forceps

C - Trocar

D - Kirschner pins

E - Littauer scissors

A continuous x-ray image that evaluates anatomic structures in real-time

Which one of the following choices best describes fluoroscopy?

A - A scope is passed down the esophagus to assess for mucosal lesions

B - A thin x-ray beam is passed transaxially through a patient; x-ray attenuation is measured at multiple sites

C - A sound wave is passed through the body and then reflected back to the transducer

D - A continuous x-ray image that evaluates anatomic structures in real-time

E - A radionucleotide is administered to a patient; the emitted electromagnetic radiation is detected with a gamma scintillation camera

Inflammation of the eyes

The next appointment is a dog with a case of conjunctivitis.

What is the health problem?

A - Inflammation of the eyes

B - Sinus infection

C - Inner ear infection

D - Epiglottal inflammation

Past the vocal folds

During induction of anesthesia, the vet asks the veterinary technician to place an endotracheal tube.

How far in should the end of the tube go for proper access to the trachea?

A - Level of main stem bronchi

B - Caudal to uvula

C - Just to the nasopharnyx

D - Between the tonsils

E - Past the vocal folds

Decreases risk of malignant mammary gland tumors

The owner of a newly adopted four-month-old female intact kitten wants to know the main benefits of spaying her cat, besides preventing new litters of more kittens.What is a principle benefit of early spaying and neutering of a cat before six months of age?

A - Minimizes incidence of obesity in middle and older aged animals

B - Moderates aggression in multi-cat households

C - Prevents diabetes mellitus in female cats

D - Decreases risk of malignant mammary gland tumors

Permethrin

A three-year-old domestic longhair female spayed cat is presented with hypersalivation, vomiting, diarrhea, tremors, stumbling and a temperature of 105.2 F (40.7 C).

Her pupils are normal size and responsive to light. While the vet examines the animal, she has a seizure. The owner relates that he had treated her the night before with a flea dip he had originally bought for his dog.

What toxic ingredient would this cat most likely have been exposed to?

A - Organophosphate

B - Carbamate

C - Permethrin

D - D-Limonene

Horse

Which animal cannot normally regurgitate or vomit?

A - Horse

B - Cow

C - Pig

D - Ferret

Treponema paraluis-cuniculi

What organism causes "rabbit syphilis"?

A - Cheyletiella yasguri

B - Encephalitozoon spp

C - Treponema paraluis-cuniculi

D - Pasteurella multocida

E - Francisella tularensis

Methemoglobinuria (brown urine)

Which one of the following lab abnormalities is frequently seen with acetaminophen (Tylenol) toxicity in cats?

A - Increased red blood cells (polycythemia)

B - Toxic neutrophils

C - Alkalosis

D - Thrombocytopenia (low platelets)

E - Methemoglobinuria (brown urine)

Platelet

What is another name for a thrombocyte?

A - Macrophage

B - Lymph node epithelial cell

C - Basophil

D - Red blood cell parasite

E - Platelet

Decreases salivation

Why are atropine or glycopyrrolate (anti-cholinergics) often given as a premedication to dogs and cats before inducing anesthesia with ketamine or tiletamine (dissociative anesthetics)?

A - Decreases salivation

B - Increases airway secretions

C - Slows the heart rate

D - Lowers body temperature

E - Helps keep eyes closed

Packed cell volume (PCV, %)

Hematocrit is another name for what lab measurement?

A - Packed cell volume (PCV, %)

B - Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC, g/dl)

C - Total solids (TS, g/dl)

D - Hemoglobin (Hb, g/dl)

E - Red Blood Cell count

Blue

Which color is a gram-positive bacteria on the microscopic slide?

A - Green

B - Red

C - Blue

D - Orange

E - Pink

Fluke

What is the common name for Fasciola hepatica?

A - Tapeworm

B - Hookworm

C - Whipworm

D - Coccidia

E - Fluke

15-25 mm

What is the amount of expected moisture on a paper testing strip when performing Schirmer's tear test in a normal animal?

A - 10-15 mm

B - 0-5 mm

C - 5-10 mm

D - 15-25 mm

E - 25-30 mm

Howell-Jolly bodies

Which of these is increased when an animal is responding to anemia?

A - Rouleaux formations

B - Target cells

C - Howell-Jolly bodies

D - Crenation

E - Band cells

Hemolysis

What is indicated by a clear colorless zone around a bacterial colony on a blood agar plate?

A - Fungal contamination

B - Sugar fermentation

C - Hemolysis

D - Bacteria have catalase

E - No sugar fermentation

Before the incision is closed

When should sponges used during surgery be counted?

A - After termination of surgery

B - This is unnecessary

C - Before extubation

D - Before the incision is closed

E - Before last skin suture placed

The bottom of the hindfoot

Which direction is plantar?

A - The bottom of the fore foot

B - Side of the feet, independent of front or rear

C - The bottom of the hindfoot

D - The top of the hind foot

E - The top of the hoof

A universal digital image format that allows sharing of images between clinics

Which one of the following choices best describes the use of Digital Imaging and Communication in Medicine (DICOM) in digital radiology?

A - A means of converting traditional x-ray film into digital images

B - A method of obtaining digital radiographs with less radiation exposure

C - A mechanism that prevents artifacts from occurring on digital images

D - A universal digital image format that allows sharing of images between clinics

E - A technique that transforms digital images into hard copies for storage purposes

0.45% Saline, 5% dextrose

Which of the following intravenous solutions are hypotonic?

A - Lactated ringers solution, Normosol-R®

B - 0.45% Saline, 5% dextrose

C - Hetastarch, Vetstarch

D - 5% Dextrose in 0.9% saline

E - Plasmalyte 148, Normosol-M®

Low kilovoltage (kVp); High milliamp-seconds (mAs)

Which setting is better for an x-ray of an area of the body that has high contrast between tissue and bone, such as a hip x-ray of a young dog?

A - Low kilovoltage (kVp); Low milliamp-seconds (mAs)

B - High kilovoltage (kVp); Low milliamp-seconds (mAs)

C - High kilovoltage (kVp); High milliamp-seconds (mAs)

D - Low kilovoltage (kVp); High milliamp-seconds (mAs)

A detector panel converts x-rays into electrical signals; an analog image is created which is then digitalized

Which one of the following choices best describes how an image is produced with digital radiography?

A - A detector panel converts x-rays into electrical signals; an analog image is created which is then digitalized

B - Technetium 99 is administered to a patient; photon emission is detected and recorded with a gamma scintillation camera

C - A transducer emits a short pulse of sound into the patient; the sound that is reflected back creates an image

D - Radio waves are used to generate images by disrupting hydrogen nuclei in tissues

E - An x-ray beam passes transaxially through a small segment of the patient; an image is created by measuring x-ray attenuation at sequential sites

Overnight

When are mares most likely to foal?

A - Morning

B - Overnight

C - Any time

D - Within one hour before or after sunset

E - Afternoon

Kidney function and hydration

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is used to measure the function of what, on a blood chemistry panel?

A - Acid-base status

B - Nonregenerative anemia

C - Kidney function and hydration

D - Pancreatic digestive enzyme activity

E - Stomach motility and gall bladder secretion

English bull dog

Which one of the following dog breeds is classified as brachycephalic?

A - English bull dog

B - Golden retriever

C - Great Dane

D - Greyhound

Maxillary incisors

Which teeth are best radiographed using the bisecting radiograph technique?

A - Temporomandibular joint (TMJ)

B - Maxillary cheek teeth

C - Mandibular molars

D - Mandibular premolars

E - Maxillary incisors

FeLV and rabies vaccines

Feline injection site sarcomas are primarily associated with which two vaccines?

A - FeLV and rabies vaccines

B - Rabies and feline panleukopenia vaccines

C - Feline panleukopenia and FIV vaccines

D - FeLV and feline calici/herpes vaccines

E - Feline calici/herpes and panleukopenia vaccines

Orchitis

Which term describes inflammation of the testicle?

A - Orchitis

B - Phimosis

C - Phlebitis

D - Cryptorchid

Causes apnea if given rapidly

Which of the following statements about propofol is correct?

A - Causes apnea if given rapidly

B - Long-acting hypnotic agent

C - Provides good visceral analgesia

D - Acts on alpha-2 receptors

E - Contraindicated with hepatic dysfunction

Fewer X-rays reach the film

What is the effect of a high-ratio grid on an x-ray exposure?

A - Fewer X-rays reach the film

B - Loss of film resolution

C - More x-rays pass through to the animal

D - Less mAs needed

E - Darker x-rays

2/3 Intracellular, 1/3 extracellular

The total amount of water in the body, or the total body water (TBW) is approximately 60% of the body weight in healthy animals.

Which one of the following choices most correctly describes the distribution of the total body water?

A - 1/5 Intravascular, 4/5 extravascular

B - 2/3 Intracellular, 1/3 extracellular

C - 1/2 Tissue, 1/2 plasma

D - 1/3 Intravascular, 1/3 interstitial, 1/3 plasma

E - 1/4 Interstitial, 3/4 extracellular

Squamous cell carcinoma

What is the most common malignant oral tumor in cats?

A - Squamous cell carcinoma

B - Transitional cell carcinoma

C - Osteosarcoma

D - Fibrosarcoma

E - Melanoma

Magnesium ammonium phosphate

(triple phosphate)

What is another name for struvite crystals in the urine?

A - Urate monohydrate

B - Magnesium ammonium phosphate

C - Amorphous phosphate

D - Calcium carbonate

E - Calcium oxalate monohydrate

Lymphocytes

Magnesium ammonium phosphate

A - Monocytes

B - Lymphocytes

C - Neutrophils

D - Eosinophils

E - Basophils

Protects a plastic orogastric tube from being bitten

What is a Frick speculum used for in large animal medicine?

A - Holds eyelids open for short ophthalmic procedures

B - Vaginal exam

C - Teat repair

D - Protects a plastic orogastric tube from being bitten

E - To clean out between hoofs

7.5 g/dl

What is the total serum protein level in a dog with an albumin of 4.0 g/dl and a globulin level of 3.5 g/dl?

A - 1.5 g/dl

B - 7.5 g/dl

C - 5.0 g/dl

D - Cannot calculate with this information

E - 3.5 g/dl

Towards the nose

Which direction is rostral?

A - Towards the belly

B - Towards the left side

C - Towards the nose

D - Towards the right side

E - Towards the tail

Tissue specimen preservative

What is the primary use of formaldehyde/formalin in veterinary practice?

A - Hard surface disinfectant

B - Tissue specimen preservative

C - Surgical scrub solution

D - Antiseptic agent

Demodicosis

A six-month-old mixed breed dog is presented with a focal area of alopecia with comedones.

A skin scraping is shown below.

Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?

A - Microsporosis

B - Demodicosis

C - Cheyletiellosis

D - Dermatophytosis

E - Sarcoptic mange

Prolene

Which suture material is made of polypropylene (i.e., just like synthetic long underwear)?

A - PDS

B - Vicryl

C - Prolene

D - Dexon

E - Monolene

Metabolic acidosis

Which one of the following choices can cause a low CO2 on the blood gas of a dog presenting for emergency triage?

A - High spinal cord injury

B - Metabolic acidosis

C - Traumatic brain injury

D - Laryngeal paralysis

E - Administration of opioids

Uterus

The vet has asked you to prepare for a pyometra surgery on a seven-year-old intact female Schnauzer.

What are you about to help remove from the dog?

A - Uterus

B - Gall bladder

C - Spleen

D - Mammary glands

E - Kidney

Horses; calcium carbonate crystals

Which animal normally has cloudy urine and why?

A - Horses; calcium carbonate crystals

B - Cloudy urine is abnormal in all species

C - Cats; struvite crystals

D - Pigs; magnesium ammonium phosphate crystals

E - Ferrets; high mucus concentration

Blood urea nitrogen and/or creatinine are increased

Which one of the following abnormalities indicates azotemia in a cat?

A - Sodium-Potassium ratio is too low

B - Pre- and post-prandial serum bile acids are elevated

C - Normal pre-LDDS, increased post-LDDS

D - Serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and alkaline phosphatase (ALP) are above the reference range

E - Blood urea nitrogen and/or creatinine are increased

Splenic torsion

Which one of the following problems is often associated with gastric dilatation and volvulus in dogs?

A - Diaphragmatic hernia

B - Spondylosis deformans

C - Epigloic foramen entrapment

D - Persistent right aortic arch

E - Splenic torsion

Moving legs inward, towards the midline

If a dog has a neurologic problem and she is adducting her front legs, what is she doing with them?

A - Moving legs inward, towards the midline

B - Towards the top line

C - Away from the left side

D - Moving legs outward, away from the midline

E - Towards the right ear

Chronic renal tubular degeneration

What kind of problem may result in waxy casts in the urine sediment of a dog?

A - Glomerular leakage

B - Over hydration

C - Renal hemorrhage

D - Chronic renal tubular degeneration

E - Pyelonephritis (kidney infection)

Miosis

On physical exam, the patient's pupils are constricted like this. What is this called?

A - Mydriasis

B - Myiasis

C - Miosis

D - Meiosis

Can be mistaken for cephalic vein in venipuncture

When performing a cephalic venous blood collection on an agility dog, the technician assisting reminds you to watch out for the brachioradalis muscle.

Why is the brachioradialis muscle clinically significant in dogs and cats?

A - Can be mistaken for cephalic vein in venipuncture

B - Implicated in radial nerve paralysis caused by venipuncture

C - Lies over the femoral artery

D - Associated with brachial plexus avulsion

E - Adjacent to the tibial nerve

Miniature poodle under 7 kg

You are asked to set up a non-rebreathing anesthetic circuit for the next surgery case.

What kind of patient do you expect?

A - Greyhound with no body fat

B - Miniature poodle under 7 kg

C - Siamese cat over 20 lbs

D - Obese Labrador

E - Asthmatic bulldog

Once a day, by mouth

A cockatoo has been prescribed 10 mg of Supercillin, s.i.d. PO for 10 days.

How often does the bird get medicine each day? By what route?

A - Three times a day, intravenous

B - Twice a day, under the skin

C - Once a day, by mouth

D - As needed, intramuscular

Bain system

Which commonly used anesthetic circuit is made up of a tube within a tube?

A - Closed circle system

B - Open system

C - Semi-closed circle system

D - Bain system

E - Universal Y circuit

Stifle

When a clinician tests for a positive drawer sign in a dog, what part of the dog are they handling, anatomically?

A - Stifle

B - Carpus

C - Hip joint

D - Temporomandibular joint

E - Hock

Vomiting after eating

Which one of the following problems is most likely in a cat with the parasite Ollulanus tricuspis?

A - Wasting and weight loss

B - Constipation

C - Coughing

D - Vomiting after eating

E - Watery diarrhea

Glomerular leakage

What kind of problem may result in clear hyaline casts in the urine sediment of a dog?

A - Chronic renal tubular degeneration

B - Glomerular leakage

C - Pyelonephritis (kidney infection)

D - Renal hemorrhage

E - Over hydration

Uterus has inverted and is positioned outside the body

The team is called to a dairy farm at 4 a.m. for a "prolapse."

What kind of problem is this likely to be?

A - Penis cannot retract into prepuce

B - Esophagel obstruction preventing regurgitation

C - Uterus has inverted and is positioned outside the body

D - Eyeball popped out of socket

50

If an IV set dispenses 60 drops/ml, what is the IV drip rate (drops per minute) needed to give a cat 300 ml of Lactated Ringer's solution (LRS) over six hours?

A - 60

B - 50

C - 100

D - 10

As needed

A basset hound with galloping halitosis has been prescribed medicated mint chews PRN for bad breath.

How often does the dog get treated?

A - Every other day

B - As needed

C - Once a day

D - Four times a day

Pig

Which animal cannot normally sweat?

A - Horse

B - Pig

C - Cattle

D - Mouse

Scrape hard tissues

What is the purpose of a curette?

A - Hold intramedullary bone pins

B - Scrape hard tissues

C - Highly absorbent surgical sponge

D - Cauterize blood vessels

DeBakey

Which forceps are particularly good for vascular surgery?

A - Rat tooth

B - Russian thumb

C - Brown-Adson

D - Allis

E - DeBakey

The hoof

Which part is the most distal?

A - The stifle

B - The elbow

C - The carpus

D - The hip joint

E - The hoof

Periodontitis

Which is more severe, periodontitis or gingivitis?

A - Periodontitis

B - Gingivitis

C - Severity based on age and sex

D - Depends on patient

E - No difference in severity

Uncommon

How common are dental caries (cavities) in dogs?

A - Seen in 75% of adults older than 7 years

B - Often found under heavy dental calculus

C - Seen in 35% of adults older than 5 years

D - Uncommon

E - Common

two to six months

At what age can a male dog definitively be diagnosed with cryptorchidism?

A - At birth

B - Cannot say

C - seven to 12 months

D - two to six months

An incision into abdominal cavity

What is a laparotomy?

A - An incision into thoracic cavity

B - An incision into a joint

C - An incision into pelvic cavity

D - An incision into abdominal cavity

E - An incision into oral cavity

Dissociative

Ketamine is classified as which one of the following types of anesthetic agents?

A - Opioid

B - Barbiturate

C - Dissociative

D - Inhalant

E - Synthetic codeine analogue

Vomiting

"Emesis" is the medical term for what condition?

A - Urination

B - Vomiting

C - Defecation

D - Anemia