Physical exam exam 2

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Last updated 4:01 PM on 10/1/26
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156 Terms

1
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What are the two goals of joint motion examination?

Quantify motion and identify involved structures

2
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Define osteokinematics

Movement of long bones that produces motion

3
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What is ROM??

The arc of motion through which a segment moves in a specific plane

4
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Which plane contains flexion and extension movements

Sagittal plane

5
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What are the three cardinal planes of motion?

Sagittal, frontal, transverse

6
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What is degree of freedom (DOF)?

Number of planes a joint can move through

7
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How many DOFs does the glenohumeral joint have?

Three

8
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What are the two factors that determine ROM?

Physiological and accessory motion

9
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What is the difference between active and passive motion?

Active = patient moves; Passive = examiner/equipment move

10
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Which usually has greater ROM, active or passive?

Passive ROM

11
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What structures are examined during PROM?

joint capsule, ligaments, fascia, articular surfaces

12
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Name the four end feels

Soft, firm, hard, empty

13
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Which end feel is associated with two bones meeting?

Hard

14
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Which end-feel may indicate an ACL rupture?

Empty or open

15
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What are the three accessory motions?

Roll, glide, spin

16
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Define roll

New point contacts new point

17
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Define glide

One point contacts multiple new points

18
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Define spin

Rotation around a stationary axis

19
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What is goniometry?

Measurement of joint angles/ROM

20
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What are the three main parts of a goniometer?

Fulcrum, stationary arm, moving arm

21
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What should always be measured first when comparing sides?

Uninvolved side

22
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What information should be documented when recording ROM?

Date, position, motion type, side, joint, ROM, pain

23
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What is joint play?

Motion necessary for full ROM that is not under voluntary control

24
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Why can joint play decrease?

Inflammation, immobilization, restricted motion

25
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What are the three grades of ligament laxity? Describe them.

Grade 1 = pain, no laxity; Grade 2 = some displacement; Grade 3 = open-end feel.

26
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What are the three purposes of strength testing?

Identify deficits, quantify weakness, determine RTP readiness

27
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What three factors can alter muscle strength test results?

Pain, musculotendinous injury, nerve injury.

28
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Which type of testing is preferred for acute injuries?

Break (isometric) tests.

29
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Which type of testing is preferred for non-acute injuries?

Manual muscle tests

30
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What three types of muscle testing exist?

Isometric, isotonic, isokinetic

31
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What is an isometric test?

Strength test with no joint movement

32
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Name one advantage and one disadvantage of isometric testing

Advantage: portable/easy. Disadvantage: position-specific

33
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What type of contractions occur during isotonic testing?

Concentric and eccentric contractions

34
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What is the major advantage of isokinetic testing?

Maximal resistance throughout ROM and objective measurement

35
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Why is manual muscle testing considered subjective?

Results vary among examiners

36
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Describe a break test procedure.

Patient holds position while examiner gradually applies resistance

37
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What does a strong and painless break test indicate?

Normal

38
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What does a strong and painful break test indicate?

Muscle/tendon injury

39
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What does a weak and painless break test indicate?

Nerve injury or rupture

40
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What does a weak and painful break test indicate?

Serious injury such as fracture/dislocation

41
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What is resisted ROM testing

Dynamic muscle testing through ROM using resistance

42
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Define substitutions and compensations.

Substitutions = other muscles help; Compensations = body position changes

43
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What MMT grade corresponds to normal strength?

Grade 5

44
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What grade is "Fair"?

Grade 3+, 3, 3-

45
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What grade is "Trace"?

Grade 1

46
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What grade is "Zero"?

Grade 0

47
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Name three instrumented isometric testing devices

Grip dynamometer, pinch dynamometer, cable tensiometer

48
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What does a grip dynamometer measure?

Grip strength/endurance

49
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What does a pinch dynamometer measure?

Fine motor pinch strength

50
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What is 1RM?

Maximum weight lifted once

51
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Who should not perform a 1RM test?

Children, adolescents, injured athletes

52
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What is 10RM used for?

Untrained individuals and rehabilitation patients

53
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Define isokinetic testing.

Maximum effort against a machine moving at a fixed speed

54
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What is the goal of a neurological examination?

Rule out brain, spinal cord, or peripheral nerve pathology.

55
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What structures make up the CNS?

Brain and spinal cord

56
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What structures make up the PNS?

Cranial nerves and spinal/peripheral nerves

57
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Define a nerve plexus

Interconnection of spinal nerves that forms peripheral nerves

58
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What spinal levels form the brachial plexus?

C5-T1

59
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What spinal levels form the cervical plexus?

C1-C4

60
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Compare UMNL and LMNL

UMNL = brain/spinal cord; LMNL = peripheral nerve/anterior horn injury

61
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What is spasticity?

Muscle stiffening that limits fluid movement

62
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List signs of UMN(Upper Motor Neuron Lesion)

Spasticity, sensory loss, abnormal reflexes, bilateral symptoms, paralysis

63
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List signs of LMNL(Lower Motor Neuron Lesion)

Atrophy, decreased tone, sensory loss, diminished reflexes, unilateral symptoms

64
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What three components are included in a neurological screen?

Sensory, motor, reflexes

65
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What are afferent nerves?

Sensory nerves carrying information to the CNS

66
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What do mechanoreceptors detect?

Touch, pressure, stretch, vibration

67
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What do thermoreceptors detect?

Temperature

68
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What do nociceptors detect?

Pain

69
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Define anesthesia

Lack of sensation

70
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Define paresthesia

Altered sensation

71
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Define hyperesthesia

Hypersensitivity

72
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What is a reflex?

Involuntary response to a stimulus

73
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What three types of reflexes exist?

Deep tendon, superficial, pathological

74
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Which reflexes assess LMNLs?

Deep tendon reflexes

75
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Which reflexes suggest UMNLs

Absent superficial reflexes and positive pathological reflexes

76
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What is the normal reflex grade?

+2

77
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What does reflex grade +4 indicate?

Clonus and UMNL

78
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Name five pathological reflexes

Babinski, Clonus, Chaddock, Oppenheim, Gordon

79
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What is Cranial Nerve I and what is it responsible for?

Olfactory, Smell

80
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What is Cranial Nerve II and what is it responsible for?

Optic, Peripheral vision & pupillary reflex to light

81
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What is Cranial Nerve III and what is it responsible for?

Oculomotor, Pupil size, eyelid movement, and eye movement

82
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What is Cranial Nerve IV and what is it responsible for?

Trochlear, Eye movement

83
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What is Cranial Nerve V and what is it responsible for?

Trigeminal, Jaw movement, teeth clenching, facial sensation

84
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What is Cranial Nerve VI and what is it responsible for?

Abducens, Eye movement

85
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What is Cranial Nerve VII and what is it responsible for?

Facial, Face expressions, and taste

86
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What is Cranial Nerve VIII and what is it responsible for?

Vestibulocochlear, Hearing and balance

87
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What is Cranial Nerve IX and what is it responsible for?

Glossopharyngeal, Taste & gag reflex

88
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What is Cranial Nerve X and

Vagus, Voice quality & gag reflex

89
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What is Cranial Nerve XI and what is it responsible for?

Accessory, Shoulder shrug

90
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What is Cranial Nerve XII and what is it responsible?

Hypoglossal, tongue movement

91
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What is C5 dermatome?

Deltoid and upper lateral arm

92
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What is C7 myotome?

Elbow extension and wrist flexion

93
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What reflex tests C6?

Brachioradialis reflex.

94
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What myotome tests L5?

Great toe extension

95
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What reflex tests S1-S2?

Achilles tendon reflex

96
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Cervical Plexus

C1-C4 with a small distribution coming from C5

97
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Cervical Plexus Dermatome range

C2-C4

98
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What are the myotomes for C1-C2?

Neck Flexors

99
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What is the dermatome for C2

Temporal and occipital regions

100
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What is the dermatome and myotome for C3?

Posterior cheek and lateral neck, Lateral flexors