Physiological Psychology Exam 2

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Last updated 12:11 AM on 10/6/26
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260 Terms

1
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What event triggers the fusion of synaptic vesicles with the presynaptic membrane during transmission?

The influx of Ca2+ ions through voltage-gated calcium channels.

2
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Define an 'endogenous' ligand.

A substance produced naturally within the body that binds to a receptor.

3
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Define an 'exogenous' ligand.

A substance originating from outside the body, such as a drug, that binds to a receptor.

4
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What is the primary functional difference between ionotropic and metabotropic receptors?

Ionotropic receptors open ion channels directly, while metabotropic receptors activate G proteins to open channels or cause cellular changes.

5
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Approximately how many receptor types have been identified for serotonin?

14 types.

6
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How many receptor types are typically associated with dopamine?

5 types.

7
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What phenomenon occurs when a single neuron contains and releases more than one type of neurotransmitter?

Co-localization or co-existence.

8
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In what cellular location are small-molecule neurotransmitters, such as amines and amino acids, typically synthesized?

In the cytoplasm of the axon terminal.

9
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Where are large-molecule neuropeptides synthesized within the neuron?

In the cell body (soma).

10
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How are neuropeptides transported from the soma to the axon terminal?

Via kinesin along microtubules through axonal transport.

11
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Contrast the release patterns of small-molecule versus large-molecule neurotransmitters.

Small-molecule transmitters are released with each action potential, while large-molecule transmitters are released gradually in response to multiple potentials.

12
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Which neurotransmitter is considered the most common excitatory amino acid in the brain?

Glutamate.

13
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Which amino acid neurotransmitter is the primary inhibitory signal in the brain?

GABA (Gamma-aminobutyric acid).

14
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Name the three main ionotropic glutamate receptors.

AMPA, NMDA, and Kainate receptors.

15
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What ion normally blocks the NMDA receptor channel at resting membrane potential?

Magnesium (Mg2+).

16
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What two conditions are required to release the magnesium block from an NMDA receptor?

Partial depolarization of the membrane and co-activation by glutamate and glycine.

17
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How is glutamate primarily cleared from the synaptic cleft?

Via Excitatory Amino Acid Transporters (EAATs) located on astrocytes and neurons.

18
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Which enzyme breaks down glutamate within the cytoplasm of astrocytes?

Glutamine synthase.

19
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What is the metabolic precursor for the synthesis of GABA?

Glutamic acid (glutamate).

20
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Which enzyme catalyzes the conversion of glutamate into GABA?

Glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD).

21
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Describe the ion flow associated with the activation of ionotropic GABA-A receptors.

An influx of chloride (Cl−) ions occurs.

22
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What is the main mechanism of action for the metabotropic GABA-B receptor?

It opens potassium (K+) channels for ion efflux.

23
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Where are ionotropic GABA-C receptors primarily located?

In the retina.

24
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Which enzyme is responsible for the degradation of GABA in the cytoplasm?

GABA aminotransferase.

25
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What type of ion channel is controlled by the ionotropic glycine receptor?

A chloride (Cl−) channel.

26
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Name the toxin that acts as a glycine receptor antagonist, leading to over-excitation.

Strychnine.

27
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Which bacteria-produced toxin blocks the release of glycine and GABA, causing tetanus?

Tetanus toxin.

28
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What was the first neurotransmitter to be identified?

Acetylcholine (ACh).

29
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What term describes neurons that utilize acetylcholine as their primary neurotransmitter?

Cholinergic.

30
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The loss of cholinergic neurons in the brain is a hallmark of which neurodegenerative disease?

Alzheimer’s disease.

31
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Which enzyme synthesizes acetylcholine from Acetyl CoA and choline?

Choline acetyltransferase (ChAT).

32
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Which enzyme breaks down acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft?

Acetylcholinesterase (AChE).

33
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Name the two major cholinergic nuclei found in the basal forebrain.

The nucleus basalis and the medial septal nucleus.

34
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Contrast the fast excitatory effects of nicotinic ACh receptors with the slower effects of muscarinic receptors.

Nicotinic receptors are ionotropic and flux Na+ and K+, while muscarinic receptors are metabotropic and G protein-coupled.

35
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Which cholinergic antagonist is known for causing paralysis by blocking nicotinic receptors at the neuromuscular junction?

Curare.

36
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In the autonomic nervous system, which neurotransmitter is used by all preganglionic neurons?

Acetylcholine.

37
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List the three neurotransmitters categorized as catecholamines.

Dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine.

38
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What amino acid serves as the dietary precursor for all catecholamines?

Tyrosine.

39
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Describe the Mesolimbocortical pathway for dopamine.

It originates in the Ventral Tegmental Area (VTA) and projects to the nucleus accumbens, cortex, and hippocampus.

40
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Which dopaminergic pathway originates in the Substantia Nigra and is affected in Parkinson's disease?

The Nigrostriatal (or mesostriatal) pathway.

41
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Which brain structure is the primary source of norepinephrine in the CNS?

The locus coeruleus.

42
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What behavioral state is most strongly associated with the release of norepinephrine from the locus coeruleus?

Vigilance or attentiveness to environmental events.

43
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What are axonal varicosities?

Swellings along an axon that release neurotransmitters without traditional synaptic junctions, enabling volume transmission.

44
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How is norepinephrine primarily removed from the synapse?

Via the norepinephrine transporter (NET) and degradation by Monoamine oxidase (MAO) or COMT.

45
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What is the dietary precursor for the synthesis of serotonin (5-HT)?

Tryptophan.

46
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Where are the cell bodies of the brain's serotonergic neurons primarily located?

In the raphe nuclei.

47
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Which serotonin receptor subtype is unique because it is ionotropic?

The 5−HT3​ receptor.

48
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Which anxiolytic drug selectively targets the 5−HT1A​ receptor subtype?

BuSpar.

49
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How are neuropeptides terminated after release, given they have no reuptake mechanisms?

They are destroyed by extracellular enzymes.

50
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List the three main families of endogenous opioid peptides.

Endorphins, enkephalins, and dynorphins.

51
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What is the primary function of endogenous opioids in the spinal cord and periaqueductal gray (PAG)?

The reduction of pain (analgesia).

52
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Identify two characteristics of Nitric Oxide (NO) that distinguish it from classic neurotransmitters.

It is produced on demand (not stored) and can act as a retrograde transmitter by diffusing through membranes.

53
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Define 'Neuropharmacology'.

The scientific study of compounds that selectively affect the functioning of the nervous system.

54
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How does a 'competitive' ligand differ from a 'noncompetitive' ligand?

A competitive ligand binds to the orthosteric site, while a noncompetitive ligand binds to an allosteric modulatory site.

55
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What is the function of an 'inverse agonist' at a receptor?

It initiates the reverse of the normal effect of the endogenous transmitter.

56
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Define 'binding affinity'.

The propensity of molecules of a drug to bind to a specific receptor.

57
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Define 'efficacy' in the context of neuropharmacology.

The ability of a bound ligand to activate the receptor and initiate a cellular response.

58
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What does a dose-response curve (DRC) represent?

The relationship between the dose of a drug and the strength of the resulting response.

59
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How is the 'Therapeutic Index' of a drug calculated?

By comparing the effective dose 50% (ED50​) with the lethal dose 50% (LD50​) or toxic dose 50% (TD50​).

60
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What does 'bioavailability' refer to?

The amount of a drug that is free to act on its target tissue.

61
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Which route of drug administration typically yields the fastest effect?

Intravenous (IV) injection or inhalation.

62
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What physiological barrier prevents many large drug molecules from entering the brain?

The blood-brain barrier (BBB).

63
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Define 'functional tolerance'.

A decrease in drug effectiveness due to changes in receptor density (up-regulation or down-regulation).

64
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What receptor change typically occurs in response to chronic exposure to an agonist?

Down-regulation (a decrease in the number of receptors).

65
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What receptor change typically occurs in response to chronic exposure to an antagonist?

Up-regulation (an increase in the number of receptors).

66
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Define 'sensitization' as it relates to repeated drug administration.

An increase in the effectiveness of a drug with repeated use.

67
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Why do withdrawal symptoms often resemble the opposite of a drug's primary effects?

They are caused by compensatory mechanisms the body established to maintain homeostasis during chronic drug use.

68
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How does the drug Reserpine impact neurotransmitter production?

It interferes with the storage of transmitters by blocking their packaging into vesicles.

69
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How does Tetrodotoxin (TTX) prevent synaptic transmission?

By blocking voltage-gated Na+ channels, preventing the conduction of nerve impulses.

70
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What is the mechanism of action for Botox (botulinum toxin)?

It disrupts the SNARE proteins that allow motor neuron vesicles to release ACh.

71
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What is the primary role of presynaptic autoreceptors?

They monitor the amount of transmitter released to provide feedback and regulate further release.

72
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How does caffeine increase the release of stimulatory neurotransmitters?

It acts as a competitive antagonist at presynaptic adenosine autoreceptors, blocking the inhibitory feedback loop.

73
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How do drugs like cocaine and amphetamines prolong synaptic activity?

By inhibiting the reuptake mechanisms (transporters) that clear neurotransmitters from the cleft.

74
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What is the mechanism of Monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors?

They block the enzymes that degrade monoamines, allowing transmitters to remain active longer.

75
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Name a drug that acts as an antagonist at postsynaptic dopamine D2​ receptors.

Haloperidol (an antipsychotic).

76
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What is the mechanism of the mood stabilizer lithium?

It modulates intracellular signals, such as second messengers, leading to changes in gene expression.

77
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Which amino acid is present at lower concentrations and has a controversial role as a neurotransmitter compared to glutamate?

Aspartate.

78
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What are the behavioral effects of norepinephrine release in the CNS?

It is generally excitatory, increasing vigilance and attentiveness.

79
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Which neuropeptide acts at the kidneys to retain fluid and in the brain to promote thirst?

Angiotensin.

80
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What is 'cross-tolerance'?

A condition where tolerance to one drug results in tolerance to another drug in the same chemical class.

81
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Which enzyme converts serotonin into melatonin?

Not explicitly named, but melatonin is listed as the subsequent indoleamine in the serotonin family.

82
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Define 'metabolic tolerance'.

A type of tolerance where the body (usually the liver) becomes more effective at clearing or metabolizing a drug.

83
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What does the abbreviation 'ADME' stand for in pharmacokinetics?

Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, and Excretion.

84
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Which drug inhibits tryptophan hydroxylase, preventing the synthesis of serotonin?

Para-chlorophenylalanine.

85
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Which drug impairs the maintenance of microtubules, thereby blocking axonal transport?

Colchicine.

86
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Contrast 'partial agonists' with full agonists regarding efficacy.

Partial agonists produce only a moderate maximal response, regardless of the dose administered.

87
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What is a 'nonmonotonic' dose-response curve?

A curve where the drug response reverses after a certain dose, often due to binding at secondary, lower-affinity sites.

88
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Where are α and β adrenergic receptors found besides the CNS?

In many other tissues of the body, including the sympathetic nervous system target organs.

89
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What is the role of 'retrograde transmitters' like Nitric Oxide in the brain?

They diffuse from the postsynaptic neuron back to the presynaptic neuron to modulate synaptic plasticity.

90
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Which neuropeptide is co-released with glutamate by C-fiber pain afferents during significant pain?

Substance P.

91
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How do cannabinoids communicate in the nucleus accumbens according to the provided schematic?

They are shown acting as part of the complex neuronal communication network involving reinforcement.

92
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What is the effect of Carbon Monoxide (CO) on cerebral blood flow?

It acts as a vasodilator, increasing blood flow.

93
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In the Nigrostriatal pathway, how can dopamine be both excitatory and inhibitory?

Because it acts on different receptor subtypes, such as D1​ (excitatory) and D2​ (inhibitory).

94
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Name the two specific nuclei in the pons/midbrain that form a main cholinergic projection system.

Pedunculopontine nucleus and laterodorsal tegmental nucleus.

95
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Which specific brain region is associated with dopamine's role in reinforcement and reward?

The nucleus accumbens (NAc).

96
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What is the relationship between dietary tryptophan and brain serotonin levels?

The amount of tryptophan in the diet directly determines the amount of 5−HT available in the brain.

97
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What is 'orthosteric' binding?

Binding that occurs at the same site on a receptor as the endogenous neurotransmitter.

98
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Define 'allosteric' binding.

Binding that occurs at a modulatory site on the receptor complex, distinct from the primary transmitter site.

99
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Why is the therapeutic index of Lorazepam (Ativan) considered better than that of Phenobarbital?

Lorazepam has a wider separation between its effective dose (ED50​) and lethal dose (LD50​).

100
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The electrochemical process where neurons communicate via chemical messengers is called _____.

Synaptic Transmission