CPC OE Practice 3.6 Dermatology

Dermatology Which topical corticosteroid is super-high potency (class 1)? A. Hydrocortisone 2.5% cream B. Clobetasol propionate 0.05% ointment C. Triamcinolone acetonide 0.1% cream D. Desonide 0.05% cream

B

Dermatology A patient is told to apply 1 fingertip unit of a topical corticosteroid. About how much is this, and what area does it cover? A. About 0.1 g; an area the size of one fingertip B. About 2 g; the entire face and neck C. About 5 g; one entire arm D. About 0.5 g; an area about the size of two adult palms

D

Dermatology Which formulation of triamcinolone acetonide 0.1% is generally the most potent? A. Ointment B. Cream C. Lotion D. All formulations are equally potent

A

Dermatology Per labeling, what are the use limits for clobetasol propionate 0.05% cream in adults? A. Up to 8 weeks, with no weekly limit B. Up to 4 consecutive weeks, no more than 100 g/week C. No more than 2 consecutive weeks, no more than 50 g/week D. Up to 6 months if applied only at bedtime

C

Dermatology A 32-year-old woman has applied betamethasone dipropionate cream to her face daily for 3 months. She now has small red papules and pustules around her mouth, sparing a narrow band of skin next to the lips. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Impetigo B. Allergic contact dermatitis to nickel C. Topical steroid–induced perioral dermatitis D. Herpes labialis

C

Dermatology At which site do topical corticosteroids penetrate most, making low-potency agents preferred there? A. Eyelids B. Palms C. Soles D. Elbows

A

Dermatology A 35-year-old with atopic dermatitis keeps flaring in the same areas after clearing with topical corticosteroids. Per the 2023 AAD guideline, which maintenance strategy reduces flares? A. Daily clobetasol to all skin indefinitely B. Routine topical antibiotics twice daily C. Scheduled oral diphenhydramine at bedtime D. A medium-potency topical corticosteroid twice weekly on flare-prone areas

D

Dermatology What is the boxed warning for topical tacrolimus and pimecrolimus? A. Hepatotoxicity B. Rare reports of malignancy, including skin cancer and lymphoma C. Adrenal suppression D. Skin atrophy and striae

B

Dermatology An 8-year-old has moderate atopic dermatitis on the face and eyelids. Which tacrolimus ointment strength is labeled for this patient? A. 0.1% B. 1% C. None; tacrolimus ointment is not approved under age 18 D. 0.03%

D

Dermatology What is the minimum age for crisaborole 2% ointment for mild-to-moderate atopic dermatitis? A. 2 years B. 3 months C. 12 years D. 18 years

B

Dermatology A 4-year-old has mild-to-moderate atopic dermatitis. Which roflumilast product is labeled for this age? A. Roflumilast 0.3% cream B. Roflumilast 0.15% cream C. Roflumilast 0.05% cream D. Oral roflumilast 250 mcg daily

C

Dermatology How does tapinarof cream work? A. Aryl hydrocarbon receptor agonist B. Phosphodiesterase-4 inhibitor C. Topical JAK inhibitor D. Vitamin D analog

A

Dermatology Which instruction for ruxolitinib 1.5% cream for atopic dermatitis is correct? A. Apply twice daily to up to 20% of body surface area, without occlusive dressings B. Apply once weekly under occlusion C. Apply to the whole body, with no surface area limit D. Apply to up to 50% of body surface area under wet wraps

A

Dermatology What does lebrikizumab target? A. IL-4 receptor alpha B. IL-31 receptor alpha C. IL-13 D. IL-5

C

Dermatology A patient with atopic dermatitis on lebrikizumab has clear or almost clear skin at week 16. Which maintenance dose is labeled? A. 500 mg SC every 2 weeks B. 250 mg SC every 4 weeks C. 300 mg SC weekly D. 30 mg SC every 8 weeks

B

Dermatology Which adverse effect is most characteristic of dupilumab, lebrikizumab, and tralokinumab in atopic dermatitis trials? A. Oral candidiasis B. Hyperkalemia C. Neutropenia D. Conjunctivitis

D

Dermatology What does nemolizumab, approved for prurigo nodularis and atopic dermatitis, target? A. IL-17A B. IL-31 receptor alpha C. Thymic stromal lymphopoietin D. IL-23 p19

B

Dermatology A 52-year-old with refractory atopic dermatitis is starting abrocitinib. Per labeling, which medication is contraindicated during the first 3 months? A. Clopidogrel B. Aspirin 81 mg daily C. Pantoprazole D. Cetirizine

A

Dermatology A known CYP2C19 poor metabolizer is starting abrocitinib for atopic dermatitis. Which starting dose is labeled? A. 200 mg daily B. 100 mg daily C. None; abrocitinib is contraindicated D. 50 mg daily

D

Dermatology Which boxed warning applies to oral JAK inhibitors for atopic dermatitis, such as upadacitinib and abrocitinib? A. Suicidal ideation and behavior B. Hepatotoxicity and pancreatitis C. Serious infections, mortality, malignancy, major adverse cardiovascular events, and thrombosis D. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

C

Dermatology A 5-year-old with atopic dermatitis has a fever and painful clusters of punched-out erosions over the flexural eczema. Which treatment is most appropriate? A. Mupirocin ointment B. A higher-potency topical corticosteroid C. Systemic acyclovir for eczema herpeticum D. Oral cephalexin alone

C

Dermatology An adult has moderate-to-severe chronic hand eczema not controlled by topical corticosteroids. Which topical agent is FDA approved specifically for this condition? A. Crisaborole ointment B. Tapinarof cream C. Roflumilast foam D. Delgocitinib cream

D

Dermatology Which counseling for tretinoin 0.025% cream for acne is correct? A. Apply a pea-sized amount to the whole face at bedtime, use sunscreen, and expect possible irritation or worsening at first B. Apply a thick layer only to individual pimples each morning C. Apply in the same application as benzoyl peroxide to boost the effect D. Stop permanently if any dryness occurs in the first week

A

Dermatology Which counseling point applies to benzoyl peroxide? A. It causes tooth discoloration in children B. It can bleach hair, towels, and clothing C. It must be avoided in pregnancy D. It requires potassium monitoring

B

Dermatology Why is benzoyl peroxide combined with topical or oral antibiotics for acne? A. It increases antibiotic absorption B. It prevents photosensitivity C. It allows the antibiotic to be stopped after 3 days D. It reduces the emergence of antibiotic-resistant Cutibacterium acnes

D

Dermatology Which topical acne agent is contraindicated in pregnancy? A. Azelaic acid B. Benzoyl peroxide C. Tazarotene D. Clindamycin

C

Dermatology A 17-year-old with moderate inflammatory acne is starting doxycycline 100 mg daily. Per AAD guidance, which approach is most appropriate? A. Continue doxycycline indefinitely as monotherapy B. Add topical benzoyl peroxide and a retinoid, and limit the oral antibiotic course (often about 3–4 months) C. Add minocycline for synergy D. Use doxycycline alone, without topicals, to limit irritation

B

Dermatology Which doxycycline counseling helps prevent pill esophagitis? A. Take with a full glass of water and stay upright for at least 30 minutes B. Take at bedtime right before lying down C. Take with milk to reduce stomach upset D. Take with an iron supplement

A

Dermatology Which adverse effects are associated with long-term minocycline use? A. Blue-gray skin pigmentation and drug-induced lupus B. Hyperkalemia and gynecomastia C. Gingival hyperplasia and hirsutism D. Hyperuricemia and gout

A

Dermatology How does clascoterone 1% cream work for acne? A. It inhibits 5-alpha-reductase B. It is a retinoic acid receptor agonist C. It is bactericidal against Cutibacterium acnes D. It is a topical androgen receptor inhibitor

D

Dermatology A healthy 26-year-old woman with normal renal function and no interacting drugs is starting spironolactone 100 mg daily for hormonal acne. Per AAD guidance, which monitoring is needed? A. Serum potassium every week for 1 month B. No routine potassium monitoring C. Monthly liver function tests D. Baseline and monthly CBC

B

Dermatology A 70-kg patient with severe nodular acne is starting isotretinoin. What is the labeled dosing? A. 5 mg/kg/day for 4 weeks B. 2 mg/kg/day for all patients C. 0.5–1 mg/kg/day in 2 divided doses for 15–20 weeks D. 10 mg once weekly

C

Dermatology Under the iPLEDGE REMS, within how many days of the pregnancy test collection must a patient who can get pregnant pick up her isotretinoin prescription? A. 30 days B. 7 days C. 14 days D. 24 hours

B

Dermatology Which drug should be avoided with isotretinoin because both can cause intracranial hypertension (pseudotumor cerebri)? A. Azithromycin B. Acetaminophen C. Minocycline D. Cetirizine

C

Dermatology A 29-year-old woman at 14 weeks' gestation has mild inflammatory and comedonal acne. Which treatment is most appropriate? A. Azelaic acid 20% cream B. Oral isotretinoin C. Tazarotene 0.1% cream D. Oral doxycycline

A

Dermatology A 48-year-old with rosacea is mainly bothered by persistent central facial redness, with no papules or pustules. Which topical agent targets this? A. Hydrocortisone 2.5% ointment B. Tretinoin 0.05% cream C. Clindamycin 1% gel D. Oxymetazoline 1% cream

D

Dermatology Which adverse effect is specifically associated with brimonidine 0.33% gel for rosacea? A. Hypopigmentation B. Hirsutism C. Rebound redness worse than baseline D. Photosensitivity

C

Dermatology A patient's papulopustular rosacea is not controlled with topical therapy. Which oral regimen is FDA approved and dosed below the antibacterial threshold? A. Isotretinoin 1 mg/kg/day B. Doxycycline 40 mg modified-release once daily C. Prednisone 20 mg daily D. Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim DS twice daily

B

Dermatology To reduce the risk of hypercalcemia, what is the maximum weekly amount of calcipotriene 0.005% ointment for adults? A. 15 g B. 500 g C. There is no limit D. 100 g

D

Dermatology A 10-year-old has plaque psoriasis in the groin and armpits. Which once-daily nonsteroidal topical agent is labeled for psoriasis, including skin folds, in children 2 years and older? A. Roflumilast 0.3% cream B. Clobetasol 0.05% ointment C. Tapinarof 1% cream D. Coal tar 5% shampoo

A

Dermatology Which medication is most likely to worsen psoriasis? A. Amlodipine B. Metformin C. Atorvastatin D. Lithium

D

Dermatology Why are systemic corticosteroids generally avoided in psoriasis? A. Tapering or stopping them can trigger severe flares, including pustular psoriasis B. They have no effect on skin inflammation C. They cause hypercalcemia when used with topical vitamin D analogs D. They are contraindicated with all biologics

A

Dermatology A patient with severe psoriasis is starting cyclosporine. Which monitoring is most important? A. Eye exams every 3 months B. Serum uric acid only C. Blood pressure and serum creatinine D. TSH and free T4

C

Dermatology A 30-year-old woman has just finished a course of acitretin for psoriasis. How long must she avoid pregnancy? A. 1 month B. At least 3 years C. 6 months D. 2 weeks

B

Dermatology Why must patients who can become pregnant avoid alcohol during acitretin therapy and for 2 months afterward? A. Alcohol promotes conversion of acitretin to etretinate, which has a much longer half-life B. Alcohol causes a disulfiram-like reaction C. Alcohol causes severe hypoglycemia with acitretin D. Alcohol blocks acitretin absorption

A

Dermatology Which adverse effects are associated with apremilast? A. Hyperkalemia and gynecomastia B. Neutropenia and lymphoma C. Diarrhea, nausea, weight loss, and depression D. Hypertension and nephrotoxicity

C

Dermatology A patient with psoriasis and a CrCl of 24 mL/min is starting apremilast. Which dose is labeled? A. 30 mg twice daily B. 10 mg twice daily C. None; apremilast is contraindicated D. 30 mg once daily

D

Dermatology How does deucravacitinib work? A. It is a monoclonal antibody against IL-23 p19 B. It is an allosteric TYK2 inhibitor that binds the regulatory domain C. It competitively inhibits JAK1 and JAK2 at the catalytic site D. It is a phosphodiesterase-4 inhibitor

B

Dermatology Which adverse effect is characteristic of IL-17 inhibitors such as secukinumab, ixekizumab, and bimekizumab? A. Conjunctivitis B. Mucocutaneous candidiasis C. Drug-induced lupus D. Hyperlipidemia

B

Dermatology Which boxed warning and access requirement apply to brodalumab? A. Hepatotoxicity; monthly liver function tests B. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy; JC virus testing C. Anaphylaxis; 2-hour observation after each dose D. Suicidal ideation and behavior; available only through a REMS program

D

Dermatology A 40-year-old with moderate-to-severe plaque psoriasis also has multiple sclerosis. Which biologic should be avoided? A. Guselkumab B. Risankizumab C. Adalimumab D. Secukinumab

C

Dermatology Which screening is required before starting guselkumab for psoriasis? A. Testing for latent tuberculosis B. HLA-B*5801 genotyping C. TPMT activity D. G6PD level

A

Dermatology A 45-year-old has a fever and sudden, widespread sterile pustules on red skin, consistent with a generalized pustular psoriasis flare. Which therapy is FDA approved for this? A. Prednisone 1 mg/kg/day orally B. Apremilast 30 mg twice daily C. Spesolimab 900 mg IV D. Clobetasol under occlusion over the whole body

C

Dermatology An adult with moderate-to-severe hidradenitis suppurativa is starting adalimumab. Which regimen is labeled? A. 160 mg on day 1, 80 mg on day 15, then 40 mg weekly or 80 mg every other week starting day 29 B. 40 mg every other week starting on day 1 C. 80 mg on day 1, then 40 mg every other week starting day 8 D. 300 mg every 4 weeks

A

Dermatology Which biologics are FDA approved for hidradenitis suppurativa? A. Ustekinumab, guselkumab, and risankizumab B. Adalimumab, secukinumab, and bimekizumab C. Dupilumab, lebrikizumab, and tralokinumab D. Omalizumab, mepolizumab, and benralizumab

B

Dermatology A patient with Hurley stage II hidradenitis suppurativa keeps getting nodules despite topical clindamycin and a course of doxycycline. Which oral antibiotic combination is commonly recommended next? A. Amoxicillin plus metronidazole B. Nitrofurantoin plus cephalexin C. Oral vancomycin D. Clindamycin plus rifampin

D

Dermatology A 30-year-old has had daily hives for 10 weeks with no identifiable trigger. Which treatment is first-line? A. A prednisone taper B. Scheduled diphenhydramine C. Montelukast monotherapy D. A second-generation H1 antihistamine, increased up to 4 times the standard dose if needed

D

Dermatology A patient's chronic spontaneous urticaria is still uncontrolled on cetirizine at 4 times the standard dose. Which add-on is FDA approved? A. Weekly methotrexate B. Omalizumab 300 mg SC every 4 weeks C. Long-term prednisone D. Famotidine

B

Dermatology Which statement about remibrutinib for chronic spontaneous urticaria is correct? A. It is an oral BTK inhibitor; it can cause petechiae and should be interrupted around surgery B. It is an anti-IgE monoclonal antibody; it can cause anaphylaxis C. It is an H1 antihistamine; it can cause sedation D. It is a leukotriene receptor antagonist; it can cause neuropsychiatric events

A

Dermatology How do Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) and toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) differ by body surface area of skin detachment? A. SJS >30%; TEN

C

Dermatology Three weeks after starting IV vancomycin for osteomyelitis, a patient develops fever, facial swelling, a widespread morbilliform rash, eosinophilia, and an elevated ALT. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS) B. Vancomycin infusion reaction C. Acute generalized exanthematous pustulosis (AGEP) D. Fixed drug eruption

A

Dermatology A patient has DRESS with liver involvement, and the culprit drug has been stopped. Which treatment is most appropriate? A. Antihistamines alone B. A 3-day prednisone burst C. Restarting the culprit drug at a lower dose D. Systemic corticosteroids tapered slowly over weeks to months

D

Dermatology Two days after starting amoxicillin, a patient develops fever, neutrophilia, and hundreds of small sterile pustules on red skin, beginning in the skin folds. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. DRESS B. Bullous pemphigoid C. Acute generalized exanthematous pustulosis (AGEP) D. Stevens-Johnson syndrome

C

Dermatology A woman has a round, dusky violet patch on her lip that comes back in the same spot every time she takes sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Erythema multiforme B. Fixed drug eruption C. Urticaria D. Allergic contact dermatitis

B

Dermatology A patient is starting panitumumab for colorectal cancer. Which prophylaxis reduces the severity of the expected acne-like rash? A. Oral isotretinoin B. Oral doxycycline plus a low-potency topical corticosteroid, moisturizer, and sunscreen C. Topical benzoyl peroxide D. No skin care until the rash appears

B

Dermatology A 50-year-old has newly diagnosed moderate-to-severe pemphigus vulgaris, with flaccid blisters, oral erosions, and a positive Nikolsky sign. Which treatment is FDA approved first-line? A. Dupilumab B. Dapsone C. Rituximab plus systemic corticosteroids D. Topical clobetasol alone

C

Dermatology A 79-year-old with type 2 diabetes develops itchy, tense bullae 8 months after starting a new diabetes medication. Which drug is most associated with bullous pemphigoid? A. Metformin B. Glipizide C. Insulin glargine D. Linagliptin

D

Dermatology Which biologic is FDA approved for bullous pemphigoid in adults? A. Dupilumab B. Omalizumab C. Rituximab D. Mepolizumab

A

Dermatology A 6-year-old has a scaly patch of hair loss with broken hairs, and KOH shows Trichophyton tonsurans. Which treatment is most appropriate? A. Topical clotrimazole for 4 weeks B. Ketoconazole shampoo alone C. Oral terbinafine or griseofulvin D. Topical hydrocortisone

C

Dermatology Which counseling for griseofulvin is correct? A. Take on an empty stomach B. Take with an antacid C. Take only at bedtime D. Take with fatty food to improve absorption

D

Dermatology A 22-year-old has pale, finely scaling macules on the upper trunk. KOH shows a "spaghetti and meatballs" pattern (tinea versicolor). Which treatment is most appropriate? A. Oral terbinafine 250 mg daily for 2 weeks B. Selenium sulfide 2.5% lotion or ketoconazole 2% shampoo applied to the affected skin C. Nystatin cream D. Oral griseofulvin

B

Dermatology A patient has used nystatin cream for tinea corporis for 3 weeks without improvement. What is the most likely reason? A. Nystatin is active against Candida but not dermatophytes B. The treatment course was too short C. Nystatin works only when taken orally D. Tinea corporis is a bacterial infection

A

Dermatology A 6-year-old has a few honey-crusted lesions around the nose (limited nonbullous impetigo). Which treatment is most appropriate? A. Oral vancomycin B. Oral amoxicillin C. Hydrocortisone cream D. Mupirocin 2% ointment three times daily for 5 days

D

Dermatology A 66-year-old has a painful vesicular rash in one dermatome that started 2 days ago. Which regimen is most appropriate? A. Valacyclovir 1 g three times daily for 7 days B. Valacyclovir 500 mg daily for 3 days C. Acyclovir 400 mg three times daily for 5 days D. Topical acyclovir alone

A

Dermatology Which valacyclovir regimen is used for episodic treatment of recurrent herpes labialis, started at the first tingling? A. 500 mg twice daily for 10 days B. 2 g twice daily for 1 day C. 1 g three times daily for 7 days D. 1 g once daily indefinitely

B

Dermatology A 3-year-old has head lice, and the parents choose ivermectin 0.5% lotion. Which instruction is correct? A. Apply to wet hair after shampooing, rinse after 1 minute, and repeat in 7 days B. Apply nightly for 7 nights C. Apply to dry hair and scalp, rinse with water after 10 minutes; one application only D. Do not use in children under 12

C

Dermatology Which counseling point is specific to malathion 0.5% lotion for head lice? A. It is flammable, so avoid hair dryers, flames, and smoking while hair is wet; use only in patients 6 years and older B. It can be used in infants 2 months and older C. It must be applied daily for 14 days D. It must be taken orally

A

Dermatology A patient with scabies is treated with permethrin 5% cream. Which counseling is most appropriate? A. Only the patient needs treatment B. Treat all close contacts at the same time, wash bedding and clothing in hot water, and expect itching to last 2–4 weeks C. Itching should stop within 24 hours if treatment worked D. Reapply daily for 30 days

B

Dermatology A nursing home resident has thick, crusted plaques full of mites (crusted scabies). Which treatment is most appropriate? A. One application of permethrin 5% cream B. Topical hydrocortisone C. One dose of oral ivermectin alone D. Multiple doses of oral ivermectin plus topical permethrin 5%

D

Dermatology What is the mechanism and minimum labeled age of berdazimer gel for molluscum contagiosum? A. Blistering agent; 2 years B. Toll-like receptor 7 agonist; 12 years C. Nitric oxide–releasing agent; 1 year D. Topical JAK inhibitor; 6 months

C

Dermatology Which adverse effects should be included in counseling for oral terbinafine? A. Hyperkalemia and gynecomastia B. Hepatotoxicity and changes in taste or smell C. Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity D. Photosensitivity and tooth discoloration

B

Dermatology An adult with severe alopecia areata who takes long-term fluconazole is being considered for deuruxolitinib. Per labeling, which statement is correct? A. Deuruxolitinib is contraindicated, because fluconazole is a moderate CYP2C9 inhibitor B. The deuruxolitinib dose should be doubled C. There is no interaction D. Deuruxolitinib should be given once weekly

A

Dermatology A 14-year-old has severe alopecia areata. Which oral JAK inhibitor is FDA approved for this age? A. Baricitinib B. Deuruxolitinib C. Ritlecitinib D. Tofacitinib

C

Dermatology A 16-year-old has nonsegmental vitiligo on the face and hands covering 6% of body surface area. Which instruction for ruxolitinib cream is correct? A. Apply once weekly under occlusion B. Ruxolitinib cream is not approved under age 18 C. Apply to up to 50% of body surface area; expect results in 2 weeks D. Apply twice daily to up to 10% of body surface area; meaningful repigmentation may take more than 24 weeks

D

Dermatology A man is starting minoxidil 5% foam for androgenetic alopecia. Which counseling is correct? A. Results appear within 1 week B. Regrowth is permanent after 3 months of use C. Temporary shedding may occur early, benefit takes at least 4 months, and regrowth is lost if minoxidil is stopped D. Apply only once weekly

C

Dermatology A woman who has used hydroquinone for melasma for years develops blue-black darkening in the treated areas. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation B. Exogenous ochronosis C. Melanoma D. Argyria

B

Dermatology Which counseling for sofpironium gel for axillary hyperhidrosis is correct? A. Apply at bedtime, wash hands right away, avoid touching the eyes because it can blur vision and dilate the pupils, and avoid flames until dry B. Apply after a morning shower and rub it into the palms C. It is safe to apply to any body area D. Expect a slow heart rate as a common effect

A

Dermatology Which sunscreen counseling is consistent with AAD recommendations? A. Apply SPF 15 once each morning B. Apply only on sunny days C. Water-resistant sunscreen does not need reapplying D. Use broad-spectrum SPF 30 or higher before going outside, and reapply every 2 hours and after swimming or sweating

D

Dermatology Parents of a 4-month-old ask about sun protection at the beach. Which advice is best? A. Apply SPF 50 to the entire body every hour B. No protection is needed at this age C. Give oral antioxidant supplements D. Keep the infant in the shade with protective clothing and a hat; apply small amounts of sunscreen to exposed areas only if shade is not available

D

Dermatology In week 2 of using fluorouracil 5% cream twice daily on the face for actinic keratoses, a patient reports redness, crusting, and erosions. Which action is most appropriate? A. Stop permanently, because this is an allergic reaction B. Start oral antibiotics C. Reassure the patient that this is the expected inflammatory response, and continue as directed D. Apply clobetasol twice daily at the same time

C

Dermatology What is the labeled dosing of tirbanibulin 1% ointment for actinic keratoses on the face? A. Once daily for 5 consecutive days, to an area up to 100 cm² on the face or balding scalp B. Twice daily for 4 weeks C. Three times weekly for 16 weeks D. Once weekly for 6 weeks

A

Dermatology How does imiquimod 5% cream work? A. It is an antimetabolite that inhibits thymidylate synthase B. It is a toll-like receptor 7 agonist that stimulates a local immune response C. It is a microtubule inhibitor D. It is a photosensitizer

B

Dermatology Which adverse effects are common with vismodegib for locally advanced basal cell carcinoma? A. Muscle spasms, hair loss, taste changes, and embryo-fetal toxicity B. Hyperkalemia and gynecomastia C. Pancreatitis and hypoglycemia D. Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity

A

Dermatology A 2-month-old with a rapidly growing infantile hemangioma near the eye is starting propranolol. Which counseling is correct? A. Give at bedtime on an empty stomach B. Target 10 mg/kg/day C. Give doses even if the infant is not feeding D. Give with or right after feeds (target about 2–3 mg/kg/day in divided doses), and hold doses if the infant is not eating because of hypoglycemia risk

D

Dermatology A 9-month-old has a bright red diaper rash that involves the skin folds, with satellite papules and pustules. Which treatment is most appropriate? A. Hydrocortisone 2.5% alone B. Topical nystatin or clotrimazole, plus barrier care C. Mupirocin ointment D. Oral fluconazole

B

Dermatology A parent asks about using benzocaine gel for an 8-month-old's teething pain. Which response is most appropriate? A. Use it 4 times daily B. It is fine if used for less than 1 week C. Avoid benzocaine in children under 2 years because of the risk of methemoglobinemia D. Use it only at bedtime

C

Dermatology Silver sulfadiazine 1% cream is contraindicated in which patient? A. A 40-year-old with a second-degree burn B. A 3-week-old infant with a scald burn C. A 65-year-old with diabetes D. A patient with a penicillin allergy

B

Dermatology A patient with extensive burns being treated with mafenide acetate develops hyperventilation and a non–anion gap metabolic acidosis. What is the cause? A. Mafenide releases cyanide B. Mafenide causes hyperkalemia C. Mafenide inhibits carbonic anhydrase D. Mafenide causes lactic acidosis from sepsis

C

Dermatology A 40-year-old has greasy yellow scaling on the scalp, eyebrows, and nasolabial folds (seborrheic dermatitis). Which treatment is first-line? A. Clobetasol 0.05% ointment to the face daily long term B. Oral terbinafine C. Oral isotretinoin D. Ketoconazole 2% cream and shampoo

D

Dermatology Why should spinosad 0.9% suspension for head lice not be used in infants younger than 6 months? A. It contains benzyl alcohol, which can cause serious reactions (gasping syndrome) in young infants B. It is flammable C. It causes seizures at any age D. It is an oral medication

A