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52 Terms

1
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What percentage of blood is supplied to the liver through the portal vein?

75%.

2
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What is the transverse fissure on the visceral surface of the liver between the caudate and quadrate lobes?

Portal hepatis.

3
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Describe the portal veins within the liver.

Thick, bright walls; course within the liver segments.

4
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What landmark identifies the start of the proper hepatic artery from the common hepatic artery?

Gastroduodenal artery.

5
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What is the relationship between the MPV and the IVC?

MPV is anterior to the IVC.

6
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What patient position offers excellent visualization of the porta hepatis?

Right coronal oblique.

7
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Where should the portal vein diameter be measured?

Where it crosses the inferior vena cava.

8
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Which transducer can be useful for assessing the liver surface nodularity?

7 to 9 MHz linear.

9
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What is the normal portal vein diameter with quiet respiration?

13 mm or less.

10
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What type of flow in the portal vein can be caused by severe liver disease?

Helical flow.

11
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What does an increase in caliber of less than 20% in the splenic vein during deep inspiration indicate?

Portal hypertension.

12
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What increases blood flow within the portal, splenic, and SMVs?

Expiration and ingestion of food.

13
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When assessing hepatic vein flow, the S and D waves should show blood flow toward which organ?

Heart.

14
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What is the normal RI in the hepatic artery?

0.5 to 0.7.

15
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What is the most common etiology for portal hypertension in North America?

Cirrhosis.

16
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What is the primary complication of portal hypertension?

Gastrointestinal bleeding.

17
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What is the most common portosystemic collateral shunt in the presence of portal hypertension?

Coronary-gastroesophageal veins.

18
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What are the sonographic findings associated with portal hypertension?

Splenomegaly and hepatofugal flow in the main portal vein.

19
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What type of flow may be seen in the portal vein when an arterioportal fistula is present?

Pulsatile hepatofugal flow.

20
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What is a treatment for portal hypertension that involves jugular vein cannulation?

TIPS.

21
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What are the normal findings in a transjugular portosystemic shunt?

Hepatopetal flow in the portal and splenic veins.

22
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Increased portal vein caliber with no detectable flow suggests what?

Portal vein thrombosis.

23
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What finding helps differentiate between congestive heart failure and portal hypertension?

Increased pulsatility in both the portal and hepatic veins.

24
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What are the sonographic findings in Budd-Chiari syndrome?

Portal hypertension.

25
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What are the clinical features of sinusoidal obstruction syndrome?

Weight loss.

26
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What is true regarding duplex ultrasound assessment of renal vasculature?

Provides anatomic and hemodynamic information, painless and noninvasive.

27
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What is the normal length of the kidney?

10-12 cm.

28
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Kidneys that are joined at the lower poles are called what?

Horseshoe kidneys.

29
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Why is the renal sinus normally brightly echogenic?

Fat and fibrous tissue in the sinus.

30
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What are the triangular-shaped structures that carry urine from the cortex to the renal pelvis?

Renal pyramids.

31
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What is the most common congenital anomaly of the urinary tract?

Duplication of the renal collecting system.

32
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Where does the right renal artery course in relation to the aorta and IVC?

Anterolateral, posterior.

33
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What vessel courses anterior to the aorta but posterior to the SMA?

Left renal vein.

34
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In which part of the renal artery does atherosclerotic disease typically occur?

Origin to proximal third.

35
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What patients might be suspected of having fibromuscular dysplasia in the renal artery?

32 yr old female with poorly controlled hypertension.

36
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What is the most appropriate transducer for evaluating renal arteries?

(Not specified, but often a higher frequency linear transducer is used.)

37
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At which level is a spectral Doppler waveform needed for the renal-aortic ratio?

Proximal, at the level of the celiac and superior mesenteric arteries.

38
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To identify the renal ostia from a midline approach, where is the image obtained from?

(Location not provided in the notes.)

39
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Which ultrasound modality with low-angle dependence helps in identifying duplicate renal arteries?

Power Doppler.

40
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At what angle are flow patterns in kidney parenchyma typically obtained?

0 degrees.

41
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How much difference in renal length suggests compromised flow?

(Specific value not provided in the notes.)

42
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What describes a normal spectral Doppler waveform in the renal artery?

Low-resistance, high-diastolic flow with velocities in the range of 10 to 120 cm/s.

43
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What renal artery duplex findings would be consistent with acute tubular necrosis?

Renal artery velocities of 70 cm/s, EDR of 0.19.

44
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What is measured to determine acceleration time?

Onset of systole to the early systolic peak.

45
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Describe the findings of proximal aortic velocities of 100 cm/s and renal arteries of 200 and 400 cm/s.

Right RAR = 2.0, left RAR = 4.0.

46
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For which renal artery would you expect to see post-stenotic turbulence?

Left renal artery.

47
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What are potential results of misinterpretation of hilar acceleration time?

All of the above (elevated renovascular resistance, systemic arterial stiffness, renal artery stenosis in the 60% to 79% range).

48
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Under what conditions is the renal-to-aortic ratio likely inaccurate?

When abdominal aortic velocities are over 100 cm/s or below 40 cm/s.

49
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What suggests proximal renal vein thrombosis?

Continuous, nonphasic low-velocity flow.

50
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What findings are consistent with increased velocity after renal artery stent placement?

Increased velocity due to size mismatch from the stent to native vessel.

51
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What renal duplex findings indicate high risk for renal atrophy?

Renal artery LAB >400 cm/s and cortical EDV <5 cm/s.

52
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What is the most common vascular complication after renal transplantation?

Renal artery stenosis.