Anatomy and physiology Exam #2

Which type of epithelial tissue lines the respiratory tract and often contains cilia?

Pseudostratified columnar

Transitional epithelium is found primarily in:

Urinary bladder

Connective tissue is classified based on:

Types of fibers, cells, and extracellular matrix

The surface of an epithelial cell facing a body cavity or the outside of the body is called the:

Apical surface

Epithelial tissue is classified based on:

Shape of cells and number of layers

Which connective tissue has a loose arrangement of fibers and cells and acts as a packing material?

Areolar

Which of the following characteristics is typical of epithelial tissue?

Cells are tightly packed and cover body surfaces or line cavities

Which statement correctly distinguishes endocrine glands from exocrine glands?

  Endocrine glands release hormones into body fluids, while exocrine glands release products through ducts

Which connective tissue is avascular, provides flexible support, and covers the ends of long bones?

Hyaline

Which type of epithelium has a single layer of flat cells?

Simple Squamous

Stratified squamous epithelium is best suited for:

Protection against abrasion

 A patient has damage to the thin tissue lining the alveoli of the lungs. Which type of epithelium has most likely been damaged?

Simple squamous epithelium

Simple squamous epithelium is specialized for:

Diffusion and filtration

Which type of epithelium has multiple layers of flat cells? 

Stratified Squamous

Which epithelial modification increases the surface area available for absorption in the small intestine?

Microvilli

Which type of epithelium appears to have multiple layers due to nuclei at different levels but is actually a single layer?

Pseudostratified columnar

Elastic fibers are primarily composed of:

Elastin

Fibrocartilage is primarily found in

Intervertebral discs

Connective tissue is classified based on:

Types of fibers, cells, and extracellular matrix

Which connective tissue is avascular, provides flexible support, and covers the ends of long bones?

Hyaline

Which type of muscle tissue contains intercalated discs?

Cardiac

Which connective tissue has a loose arrangement of fibers and cells and acts as a packing material?

Areolar

What is the primary cell type found in cartilage?

Chondrocytes

Which type of muscle tissue is voluntary and striated?

Skeletal

Which connective tissue fiber type forms a network supporting soft organs like liver and spleen?

Reticular fiber

Which connective tissue fiber is the strongest and provides tensile strength to tendons and ligaments?

Collagen fiber

Which connective tissue has abundant extracellular matrix, contains chondrocytes in lacunae, and is flexible?

 Elastic cartilage

Which connective tissue type provides strong attachment and resists tension?

Dense regular

Which connective tissue forms a framework for lymphoid organs like the spleen and lymph nodes?

Reticular

Blood is classified as a connective tissue because:

It has cells suspended in the extracellular matrix

Which type of connective tissue is the main component of the dermis of the skin?

Dense irregular connective tissue

Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin?

Hormone secretion

Which type of epithelium makes up the epidermis?

Stratified Squamous

The epidermis lacks which of the following? 

Blood vessels

Which layer of the epidermis is nourished by dermal blood vessels?

Stratum basale

Which epidermal cells absorb UV light and protect against DNA damage?

Melanocytes

Which epidermal layer is directly responsible for continuous cell division and replacement of lost skin cells?

Stratum basale

The outermost layer of the epidermis, consisting of tightly packed dead cells, is the:

Stratum corneum

Where is the epidermis thickest?

Palms and Soles

Which cells act as phagocytes to protect against infection in the epidermis?

Langerhans cells

Merkel (tactile) cells are primarily responsible for:

Detecting light touch

Melanocytes are located in the:

Stratum basale

. Which epidermal layer is only found in thick skin?

Stratum lucidum

. Which epidermal layer is only found in thick skin?

Stratum lucidum

Sebaceous glands secrete: 

sebum

Which skin condition is caused by bilirubin accumulation?

Jaundice

The Dermis is primarily composed of:

Connective tissues such as collagen, elastin, and fibroblasts

The part of the hair containing actively dividing cells is the:

Hair bulb

Which method of heat loss is the primary way the body loses heat?

radiation

Dermal papillae are responsible for:

Forming fingerprints

Which burn destroys epidermis, dermis, and accessory structures, often requiring grafting?

Third degree

What structure produces hair?

Hair follicle

The reticular layer of the dermis is made of:

Dense irregular connective tissue

Which sweat glands are most numerous and important for cooling the body?

Eccrine

Ceruminous glands are modified sweat glands that produce:

earwax

What type of bone is the patella?

Sesamoid bone

What does the term 'foramen' refer to in bone anatomy?

An opening through a bone

Which term refers to a shallow depression in a bone?

Fossa

What are the depressions or grooves in bones that accommodate blood vessels or nerves called?

Grooves/Sulcus

What is the functional unit of compact bone called?

Osteon

Which process forms flat bones of the skull?

Intramembranous ossification

What is the primary composition of the extracellular matrix of bone?

Collagen fibers and inorganic minerals

What do we call a small, rounded projection on a bone?

Tubercle

Which bone marking describes a large, rough surface for muscle attachment?

Tuberosity

What is the term for a rounded end of a bone that typically forms joints?

Condyle

What is the process where blood cell formation occurs in bones?

Hematopoiesis

What does the term 'ossification' refer to?

The process of bone formation

What is a common term for a fracture that penetrates the skin?

Compound fracture

What type of bone is primarily composed of dense and tightly packed bone tissue?

Compact bone

What is the function of the hyoid bone?

Supports the tongue

What condition is characterized by decreased bone mass and increased risk of fractures?

Osteoporosis

What type of cartilage makes up the intervertebral discs?

Fibrocartilage

During which process do long bones develop from hyaline cartilage?

Endochondral ossification

Which ligament stabilizes the atlantoaxial joint by holding the odontoid process (dens)  against the anterior arch of C1?

Transverse ligament of the atlas

How many cervical vertebrae are in the vertebral column?

7

The atlas (C1) lacks which common vertebral feature?

Vertebral body

The sella turcica, which houses the pituitary gland, is found in the:

Sphenoid bone

The atlas (C1) vertebra articulates superiorly with which bone?

Occipital bone

The dens(odontoid process)  allows which movement of the head?

Rotation

The atlas (C1) vertebrae articulates inferiorly with which bone?  

Axis (C2) bone

The foramen magnum is located in which cranial bone?

Occipital bone

Which ribs are called “floating ribs”?

11th and 12 ribs

The sternum consists of:

Manubrium, body, xiphoid process

Which of the following bones has a Dens or (odondoid process)? 

C2

How many bones are in the adult axial skeleton?

80

A child falls and injures the forearm. Imaging shows that the bone has bent and cracked on one side while the other side remains intact. What type of fracture is this?

Greenstick fracture

Which comparison correctly describes the effects of PTH and calcitonin?

PTH raises blood calcium, while calcitonin can lower it by inhibiting osteoclasts.

Which diagnosis best explains bowed legs and impaired bone mineralization in a child with vitamin D deficiency?

Rickets

Which sequence correctly describes the major stages of fracture healing?

Hematoma → soft callus → bony callus → remodeling

Which pair of hormones helps stimulate normal skeletal growth during childhood?

Growth hormone and thyroxine

A 7-year-old boy has bowed legs, widened wrists, delayed growth, and low vitamin D levels. Which mechanism best explains his skeletal abnormalities?

Inadequate calcium and phosphate absorption, impairing mineralization

A person with severe vitamin C deficiency has difficulty producing normal collagen. Which component of bone is most directly affected?

The organic osteoid matrix

How does calcitriol support normal bone mineralization?

It increases intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphate.

 A fracture has been bridged by new bone, but a noticeable enlargement remains at the injury site. Which process gradually reshapes this area?

Osteoclast resorption and osteoblast deposition during remodeling

A child with vitamin D deficiency also has muscle cramps and tingling around his mouth and hands. Which laboratory finding most directly explains these symptoms?

Low blood calcium

Increased blood calcium stimulates calcitonin release. Which action would help reduce blood calcium?

Inhibiting osteoclast activity

Which pairing correctly matches a bone cell with its function?

Osteocyte — detects mechanical stress and microdamage

A decrease in blood calcium triggers responses that raise calcium toward its normal level. This is an example of:

Negative feedback

A child sustains a fracture that crosses the epiphyseal plate. Why is this injury especially concerning?

It may disrupt future lengthwise growth of the affected bone.

Following vitamin D₃ production in the skin, which sequence represents the major pathway that produces circulating calcitriol?

Liver processing, followed by kidney activation