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Three types of patient consent
Informed, oral (verbal), implied
Consent requiring active disclosure of diagnosis, risks, alternatives and refusal consequences
Informed consent
Consent inferred from patient actions or an emergency
Implied consent
Patient rolls up sleeve for an injection — type of consent
Implied consent
Unconscious trauma patient treated without a signed form — type of consent
Implied consent (emergency exception)
Spoken agreement that is legally valid but hard to prove
Oral (verbal) consent
Number of required disclosure elements of informed consent
5
Five disclosure elements of informed consent
Diagnosis, nature/purpose, material risks, alternatives, consequences of refusal
Who is legally responsible for obtaining informed consent
The physician (not the technologist)
Technologist's role in informed consent
May witness the signature only
Who consents for an incapacitated adult
Closest relative or legal guardian/healthcare proxy
Minors who can consent for themselves
Emancipated minors (and state "mature minor" exceptions)
Consent rule true for every investigational radiopharmaceutical
Patient must sign an informed consent form
PHI stands for
Protected Health Information
HIPAA exception allowing disclosure without authorization for routine care
Treatment, Payment, and Healthcare Operations (TPO)
Does the HIPAA "minimum necessary" standard apply to treatment disclosures?
No
HIPAA breach notification deadline to affected individuals
Within 60 days of discovery
Breach affecting 500 or more individuals requires notifying
HHS/OCR within 60 days plus prominent media
Breach affecting fewer than 500 individuals reporting to HHS
Annually, by year-end
Patient right to an accounting of disclosures covers how many years
Past 6 years
Year AHA adopted the original Patient's Bill of Rights
1973
Year the Patients' Bill of Rights was replaced by the Patient Care Partnership
2003
What replaced the Patients' Bill of Rights
The Patient Care Partnership (AHA, 2003)
Is the Patient Care Partnership government legislation?
No — voluntary AHA hospital document
Number of core expectations in the Patient Care Partnership
6
Law requiring Medicare/Medicaid hospitals to ask about advance directives
Patient Self-Determination Act (1990)
Advance directive stating WHAT treatments a patient wants or refuses
Living will
Person named to make health decisions when the patient cannot
Health care proxy (durable power of attorney for health care)
DNR order covers only
Resuscitation (CPR) — all other care continues
Family member says "she wouldn't want CPR" — is this a DNR?
No — DNR must be a written physician order
Code status unknown and patient arrests
Treat as full code — start CPR
Portable physician orders for life-sustaining treatment that travel with the patient
POLST / MOLST
Four required elements of negligence
Duty, breach, causation, damages
Error that caused no harm lacks which element of negligence
Damages
Negligence committed by a licensed professional against their standard of care
Malpractice
"The thing speaks for itself"
Res ipsa loquitur
"Let the master answer" — employer liable for employee negligence
Respondeat superior
Does respondeat superior erase the employee's own liability?
No — both can be named
Rule starting the statute of limitations clock when harm is discovered
Discovery rule
Absolute outer filing deadline regardless of discovery
Statute of repose
Threat creating apprehension of harmful contact without touching
Assault
Actual unconsented physical contact
Battery
Patient refuses the injection but the tech gives it anyway
Battery
Telling a competent patient they "can't leave"
False imprisonment
Spoken defamation
Slander
Written or charted defamation
Libel
Discussing a patient's diagnosis in a public hallway
Invasion of privacy
Tort category requiring no intent to harm
Negligence
Ethical principle: do good, act in the patient's best interest
Beneficence
Ethical principle: do no harm
Nonmaleficence
Ethical principle: patient's right to decide for themselves
Autonomy
Ethical principle: treat all patients fairly and equally
Justice
Ethical principle: tell the truth
Veracity
Ethical principle: keep promises and duties
Fidelity
Purpose of an immobilization aid vs a restraint
Immobilization improves image quality; restraint manages behavior
Order of escalation for holding a patient still
Least restrictive first (sandbag, tape, then devices)
Mantel: concerns with restraint devices
Circulation, attenuation artifacts, and comfort (all of the above)
Number of principles in the ARRT Code of Ethics
11 (aspirational)
Number of ARRT Rules of Ethics
22 (enforceable)
Which ARRT ethics document is enforceable
Rules of Ethics
Number of principles in the NMTCB Code of Ethics
7
Most severe ARRT disciplinary sanction
Revocation
Least severe ARRT disciplinary sanction
Private reprimand
Three ARRT modes of communication
Verbal, written, nonverbal
Rephrasing the patient's own statement back to them
Reflection
Is "93% of communication is nonverbal" a valid fact?
No — misapplied Mehrabian finding (trap)
Non-therapeutic communication techniques to avoid
Asking "why," jargon, condescension, watching the clock
Laws requiring free interpreter services
Title VI Civil Rights Act and ACA Section 1557
May a minor ever serve as a medical interpreter?
Never — no exceptions
Correct approach for a hearing-impaired patient
Face them at eye level, normal volume, notepad
Minimum font size for low-vision patients
14-point
Cultural communication model LEARN
Listen, Explain, Acknowledge, Recommend, Negotiate
Kübler-Ross stages of grief in order
Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
Anxious patient asks the technologist for scan results
Refer to the physician — tech never gives results
Percent of U.S. adults with proficient health literacy
About 12%
Correct method to verify patient understanding
Teach-back (open-ended, chunk and check)
Why "Do you understand?" is a poor comprehension check
Patients almost always answer yes
Ambulatory means
Able to walk
NPO means
Nothing by mouth (nil per os)
Aphasic means
Cannot talk or understand words
Consent typically needed for routine diagnostic NM exams
Verbal/oral consent
Consent typically needed for therapeutic administrations
Written signed consent (obtained by physician)
First step when communicating radiation dose to a worried patient
Acknowledge the concern first
Breastfeeding guidance after I-131 NaI therapy
Complete cessation for that child
Breastfeeding interruption after Tc-99m MAA (Mantel/ICRP)
About 12 hours (Mantel Q20: 12.6 h)
Breastfeeding interruption after Ga-67 or Tl-201 (Mantel/ICRP)
3 weeks
ICRP breastfeeding interruption for Tc RBCs, phosphonates and DTPA
4 hours
Breastfeeding interruption after Tc-99m pertechnetate (thyroid) per notes
4–24 hours, dose-dependent
Breastfeeding after F-18 FDG
No interruption; limit close contact ~12 h
Breastfeeding interruption ladder
None/hours (Tc) → 12 h → weeks (Ga, Tl) → stop (I-131)
Oncology FDG-PET fasting requirement
At least 6 hours, plain water only
Cardiac sarcoidosis FDG-PET diet
High-fat, low-carbohydrate (ketogenic)
Why full bladder matters on a diuretic renogram
Can mimic false-positive obstruction
Hold levothyroxine (T4) before I-131 uptake/therapy
4–6 weeks
Hold liothyronine (T3) before I-131 uptake/therapy
2 weeks
Hold antithyroid drugs (PTU, methimazole) before uptake/scan
3–5 days
Amiodarone washout before thyroid uptake/scan
3–6 months
IV iodinated contrast washout before thyroid uptake/scan
2–4 weeks (up to 6)
Mantel: which study does NOT require NPO
GI bleeding study
Delay pregnancy after radioiodine therapy
1 year