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block 2- 4. Adrenergic autonomic drugs
block 2- 4. Adrenergic autonomic drugs
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1
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Q: Which receptors are present at the different points in the simplified ANS? (diagram on slide 3)
A: N1; N2 and muscarinic receptors; N2, α and β adrenoceptors.
2
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Q: Why were physiologists puzzled by sympathetic nerve stimulation?
A: It could produce both excitatory and inhibitory effects.
3
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Q: What did Cannon and Rosenblueth postulate in the 1940s?
A: Two adrenergic mediator substances, sympathin E and sympathin I, accounting for inhibitory and excitatory effects.
4
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Q: What did Ahlquist investigate?
A: The effects of catecholamines on blood vessels, uterus, pupillary muscle and GI muscle.
5
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Q: What was the potency order for vasoconstrictor responses?
A: Adrenaline had the greatest potency and isoproterenol the least.
6
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Q: What was the potency order for vasodilation and cardiac stimulation?
A: Isoproterenol was most potent and adrenaline least.
7
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Q: What did Ahlquist propose?
A: The existence of α and β adrenoceptors and only one sympathetic adrenergic mediator.
8
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Q: What was the significance of Ahlquist's discovery?
A: It provided the basis for developing drugs as antagonists of these receptors.
9
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Q: What do NA, Adr and Iso stand for?
A: NA = noradrenaline; Adr = adrenaline; Iso = isoprenaline.
10
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Q: What is isoprenaline?
A: A nonselective β agonist.
11
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Q: Who identified noradrenaline as the sympathetic neurotransmitter, and when?
A: U. von Euler, in 1946.
12
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Q: What did Ahlquist's 1948 study identify? (diagram on slide 6)
A: α and β adrenoceptors, based on differences in catecholamine potency.
13
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Q: What observation did Irwin Slater make in 1957?
A: Adrenaline could not relax tracheal strips in the presence of dichloroisoprenaline (DCI).
14
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Q: What was Sir James Black trying to develop?
A: A drug similar to DCI but without intrinsic activity.
15
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Q: What therapeutic potential did Black identify?
A: Protecting the heart from adrenaline release during stress or emotion.
16
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Q: What was the first beta blocker developed by Black?
A: Pronethalol, produced in 1960.
17
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Q: Why was pronethalol replaced?
A: Because of side effects in patients and animals.
18
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Q: When did James Black receive the Nobel Prize, and for what?
A: 1988, for developing beta blockers and anti-ulcer drugs.
19
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Q: Which adrenergic receptor subtypes have drugs used therapeutically?
A: α1, β1 and β2 receptors.
20
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Q: Which additional adrenergic receptor subtypes are considered?
A: α2 and β3 receptors.
21
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Q: Where are β3 adrenoceptors found, and what do they do? (diagram on slide 10)
A: In adipose tissue, they trigger lipolysis to generate heat (thermogenesis).
22
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Q: What do β3 adrenoceptors do in the bladder?
A: Relax bladder muscle, allowing greater filling and reducing the urge to urinate.
23
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Q: What effect can β3 adrenoceptors have in the heart and blood vessels?
A: Help counteract overactive sympathetic stimulation.
24
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Q: Why is β3 sometimes called the atypical β-adrenoceptor?
A: It is not blocked by drugs like propranolol.
25
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Q: Which β3 agonist is used for overactive bladder syndrome?
A: Mirabegron.
26
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Q: What other potential uses may β3 agonists have?
A: Weight loss and diabetes.
27
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Q: How can α2 adrenoceptors modulate neurotransmitter release?
A: Through a negative feedback inhibitory mechanism that modulates noradrenaline release.
28
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Q: What happens when α2 receptors are blocked during exercise?
A: Noradrenaline release increases, augmenting β-adrenergic effects on heart rate and contractility.
29
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Q: Which drugs are mentioned as α2 receptor blockers?
A: Phentolamine and yohimbine.
30
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Q: How does clonidine work?
A: Centrally in the brain stem to modulate autonomic output.
31
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Q: What organs does clonidine affect?
A: Blood vessels and the heart.
32
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Q: What important adverse effect can clonidine cause?
A: Rebound hypertension.
33
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Q: What other conditions can clonidine be used for?
A: Migraine and menopausal hot flushes.
34
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Q: What happens to urinary noradrenaline and plasma renin activity with clonidine?
A: Urinary noradrenaline increases, but plasma renin activity does not change.
35
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Q: Why can drugs targeting ANS activity have multiple therapeutic uses?
A: The ANS has neuronal projections to many organs.
36
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Q: Which ANS targets can drugs act on?
A: Adrenoceptors, nicotinic cholinoceptors, muscarinic subtypes, and neurotransmitter release or reuptake.
37
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Q: Which topic is covered in another lecture?
A: Drugs affecting the neuromuscular junction (NMJ) of the somatic nervous system.
38
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Q: Which topic is covered by Dr Moult?
A: Drugs targeting cholinoceptors.
39
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Q: What does the remainder of this lecture focus on?
A: Adrenergic receptors and neurotransmitter synthesis and release, particularly in the eye and bladder.
40
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Q: Where does noradrenaline synthesis begin, and where is NA stored? (diagram on slide 15)
A: Synthesis begins in the cytoplasm of the presynaptic nerve terminal; NA is stored in vesicles.
41
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Q: How does tyrosine enter the axon?
A: It is transported from the bloodstream.
42
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Q: Which enzyme converts tyrosine into L-DOPA?
A: Tyrosine hydroxylase (TH).
43
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Q: What is the rate-limiting step in noradrenaline synthesis?
A: Conversion of tyrosine into L-DOPA by tyrosine hydroxylase.
44
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Q: Which enzyme converts L-DOPA into dopamine?
A: Aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase (DOPA decarboxylase).
45
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Q: What does VMAT do?
A: Moves dopamine into the vesicle.
46
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Q: Which enzyme converts dopamine into noradrenaline?
A: Dopamine β-hydroxylase (DBH).
47
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Q: How does metyrosine affect noradrenaline synthesis?
A: Blocks TH, preventing tyrosine conversion to L-DOPA and reducing NA synthesis.
48
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Q: What is metyrosine sometimes used to treat?
A: Phaeochromocytoma (adrenal gland tumours).
49
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Q: How does reserpine affect noradrenaline storage?
A: Blocks VMAT, preventing NA storage in vesicles and reducing its release when stimulated.
50
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Q: What were the serious side effects of reserpine?
A: Nasal congestion, drowsiness and serious depression.
51
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Q: How do benserazide and carbidopa work?
A: They inhibit peripheral DOPA decarboxylase, blocking dopamine production in peripheral neurones and blood.
52
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Q: Why are benserazide and carbidopa used in Parkinson's disease?
A: To lower the dose of L-DOPA needed.
53
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Q: What proportion of released NA is removed by neuronal uptake (Uptake 1)?
A: About 90%.
54
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Q: Which transporter carries out Uptake 1?
A: The noradrenaline transporter (NET), moving NA against a concentration gradient.
55
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Q: What is Uptake 2?
A: Extraneuronal uptake, accounting for about 5%, into surrounding postjunctional or non-neuronal tissues.
56
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Q: What happens to the remainder of released NA?
A: It diffuses into capillaries and is removed into the systemic circulation.
57
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Q: Which two enzymes metabolise NA?
A: Monoamine oxidase (MAO) and catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT).
58
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Q: Where is MAO found, and what does it produce from NA?
A: On the mitochondrial membrane; it metabolises cytoplasmic NA into DHPG.
59
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Q: Where is COMT found, and what does it produce from NA?
A: Outside the neuron and in the liver; it methylates NA to produce normetanephrine.
60
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Q: Which further metabolites are excreted in urine?
A: Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) and 3-methoxy-4-hydroxyphenylglycol (MHPG).
61
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Q: What conditions are many drugs affecting NA reuptake or inactivation used for?
A: CNS conditions, including depression.
62
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Q: Which MAO inhibitors are mentioned for depression?
A: Phenelzine and iproniazid.
63
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Q: What dietary interaction is associated with MAO inhibitors?
A: Potential interactions with foods containing tyramine.
64
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Q: What question does the lecture raise about excessive NA release?
A: Why is there too much NA release?
65
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Q: Why can reserpine cause nasal congestion?
A: Reduced NA in nerves indirectly dilates blood vessels in the nose.
66
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Q: How can nasal congestion be relieved using sympathomimetic drugs?
A: By constricting nasal blood vessels.
67
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Q: Which drugs are used for nasal congestion?
A: Pseudoephedrine, phenylephrine, oxymetazoline and xylometazoline.
68
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Q: How do these decongestants act?
A: Some are α agonists, while others act indirectly.
69
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Q: How does menthol act as a decongestant?
A: Through a cooling action on the TRPM8 channel and a local anaesthetic action.
70
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Q: What problems are associated with cocaine as a decongestant?
A: Nasal septal and palate ischaemia, coronary constriction and pro-arrhythmic effects.
71
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Q: What is mydriasis?
A: Dilatation of the pupil.
72
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Q: How do sympathomimetics cause mydriasis?
A: α1 receptor stimulation contracts the iris dilator muscle; phenylephrine has a quick onset.
73
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Q: How do antimuscarinics cause mydriasis?
A: They relax the iris sphincter muscle and paralyse focusing muscles.
74
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Q: Which antimuscarinics are used to cause mydriasis?
A: Tropicamide and cyclopentolate.
75
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Q: Where does atropine come from?
A: Atropa belladonna (Deadly Nightshade).
76
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Q: What were the historical cosmetic uses of belladonna?
A: Women applied belladonna berry juice to the eyes to enlarge their pupils.
77
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Q: What visual side effects can atropine cause?
A: Blurred near vision and extreme light sensitivity (photophobia); effects can be long-lasting.
78
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Q: What systemic side effects can atropine cause?
A: Rapid heart rate, dry mouth, hallucinations and occasionally death.
79
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Q: What is glaucoma?
A: A build-up of excess pressure within the eyes.
80
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Q: What proportion of glaucoma cases are primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG)?
A: About 90%.
81
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Q: What happens in POAG?
A: Drainage remains open, but channels become progressively blocked; symptoms develop slowly and painlessly.
82
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Q: What causes angle-closure glaucoma?
A: The iris physically blocks the drainage channel.
83
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Q: What are the symptoms of acute angle-closure glaucoma?
A: Sudden pain, headache, blurred vision and nausea.
84
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Q: How does chronic angle-closure glaucoma develop?
A: The angle closes gradually over time, with no early warning signs.
85
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Q: What may cause normal-tension glaucoma?
A: Unknown causes, possibly optic nerve sensitivity or poor blood flow.
86
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Q: How can ANS dysfunction affect glaucoma?
A: It can cause faster development of glaucoma.
87
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Q: What is the sympathetic input to the eye? (diagram on slide 24)
A: Via the superior cervical ganglion; noradrenaline and NPY control vasoconstriction of the choroid and optic nerve head.
88
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Q: How does sympathetic input dilate the pupil?
A: Noradrenaline acts on α1 receptors on the dilator pupillae.
89
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Q: What is the parasympathetic input to the eye?
A: Via the ciliary and pterygopalatine ganglia.
90
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Q: What does ACh acting on muscarinic receptors control in the eye?
A: Accommodation and pupil constriction; it also causes vasodilation in the ocular microcirculation.
91
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Q: What is the objective of glaucoma treatment?
A: Lower intraocular pressure (IOP) by reducing aqueous humour production or increasing its outflow.
92
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Q: How do beta blockers treat glaucoma?
A: Timolol and betaxolol slow aqueous fluid production in the eye.
93
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Q: How do α2 agonists treat glaucoma?
A: Brimonidine and apraclonidine reduce fluid production and improve drainage.
94
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Q: How do muscarinic agonists treat glaucoma?
A: Pilocarpine constricts the pupil, opening drainage pathways and increasing outflow.
95
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Q: Why is pilocarpine not first-line treatment?
A: Miosis is poorly tolerated.
96
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Q: What other drug groups are used to treat glaucoma?
A: Prostaglandin analogues and carbonic anhydrase inhibitors.
97
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Q: How can α1 blockers be used to treat hypertension?
A: They block α1 adrenoceptors on blood vessels.
98
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Q: How do doxazosin and prazosin differ in dosing?
A: Doxazosin is long-acting and taken once daily; prazosin requires 2–3 doses per day.
99
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Q: Why are α1 blockers not used first-line for hypertension?
A: Postural hypotension and reflex tachycardia.
100
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Q: How can α1 blockers treat benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
A: They widen the urethral lumen, reducing obstruction and improving peak urinary flow rates.
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