M2 - Comprehensive Exam - (Oct 2026)

A) J.A. Schmidt

The term pharmacognosy was coined by:
A. J.A. Schmidt
B. C.A. Seydler
C. Dioscorides
D. Galen

B) Morphological

In which classification system are crude drugs grouped according to the part of the plant or animal they come from (e.g., leaves, barks, seeds)?
A. Taxonomical
B. Morphological
C. Pharmacological
D. Chemotaxonomical

B) Garbling

The process of removing extraneous matter, such as dirt, sand, and other plant parts, from a crude drug is called:
A. Collecting
B. Garbling
C. Curing
D. Packing

D) Organoleptic evaluation

Which method of evaluation involves assessing the crude drug based on sensory characteristics like color, odor, taste, and texture?
A. Microscopical evaluation
B. Chemical evaluation
C. Biological evaluation
D. Organoleptic evaluation
E. Physical evaluation

A) Primary metabolites are essential for the survival of the organism, while secondary metabolites are not.

Which of the following describes the key difference between primary and secondary metabolites?
A. Primary metabolites are essential for the survival of the organism, while secondary metabolites are not.
B. Secondary metabolites are produced only by plants, while primary metabolites are universal.
C. Secondary metabolites are always pharmacologically active, while primary metabolites are not.
D. Primary metabolites are small molecules, while secondary metabolites are always large macromolecules.

D) Cellulose

Which of the following is not considered a major building block in secondary metabolism?
A. Acetyl CoA
B. Shikimate
C. Mevalonate
D. Cellulose

C) Mevalonate pathway and methylerythritol phosphate (MEP) pathway

The five-carbon (C5) building block for terpenoids is derived from which two metabolic pathways?
A. Mevalonate pathway and polyketide pathway
B. Shikimate pathway and mevalonate pathway
C. Mevalonate pathway and methylerythritol phosphate (MEP) pathway
D. Polyketide pathway and shikimate pathway

C) Deoxyarabinoheptulosonate-7-phosphate (DAHP)

Which precursor is formed through the initial condensation of phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) and erythrose-4-phosphate in the shikimate pathway?
A. Shikimate
B. Dehydroquinate
C. Deoxyarabinoheptulosonate-7-phosphate (DAHP)
D. Chorismate

C) Phenylalanine and tyrosine

The conversion of chorismate to prephenate is a key step toward the biosynthesis of which aromatic amino acids?
A. Tryptophan and phenylalanine
B. Tryptophan and tyrosine
C. Phenylalanine and tyrosine
D. Phenylalanine and lysine

C) Farnesyl pyrophosphate (FPP)

Squalene, a key intermediate in the biosynthesis of steroids, is a C30 compound formed by the coupling of which precursor molecule?
A. Isopentenyl pyrophosphate (IPP)
B. Geranyl pyrophosphate (GPP)
C. Farnesyl pyrophosphate (FPP)
D. Dimethylallyl pyrophosphate (DMAPP)

B) Starflower oil

A food supplement derived from Borago officinalis, that is rich in -linolenic acid (gamolenic acid), used for the treatment of premenstrual tension, breast pain and eczema.
A. Sunflower oil
B. Starflower oil
C. Safflower oil
D. Coneflower oil

C) 2 3 4 1

Match the following fats and fixed oils in Column I with their corresponding uses in Column II.
A. 1 2 3 4
B. 4 2 1 3
C. 2 3 4 1
D. 3 4 2 1

B) 4 5 2 3 6

Match the old plant Family names in Column I with their new Family names in Column II
A. 1 2 6 4 3
B. 4 5 2 3 6
C. 2 6 4 3 5
D. 4 1 2 6 3
E. 1 5 6 4 3

C) Catgut

An absorbable suture made of a sterilized fiber or strand obtained from the collagen connective tissues of healthy animals like sheep and cattle.
A. Silk
B. Nylon
C. Catgut
D. Cotton
E. Linen

D) A and B

What is/are the commercial source(s) of Sucrose?
A. Roots of Beta vulgaris
B. Stems of Saccharum officinarum
C. Fruits of Musa x paradisiaca
D. A and B
E. AOTA

B) Only II is correct

Evaluate the following statements:
I. The milk left after the separation of the cream from the raw milk after standing is known as buttermilk.
II. The liquid separated from the coagulum is known as whey and contains lactose and inorganic salts.
A. Only I is correct
B. Only II is correct
C. Both statements are correct
D. Both statements are incorrect

B) Gum Arabic

Which gum is obtained from the bark of Acacia senegal?
A. Guar gum
B. Gum Arabic
C. Tragacanth
D. Karaya gum
E. Xanthan gum

A) Roots of dahlia and chicory

What is the biological source of the fructose polymer called Inulin?
A. Roots of dahlia and chicory
B. Marine seaweeds
C. Seeds of legumes
D. Pathologic products of plant injuries
E. Primary cell wall of seed bearing plants

C) Galls of Quercus infectoria

Chief or major commercial source of Tannic Acid:
A. Leaves of Hamamelis virginiana
B. Bark of Areca catechu
C. Galls of Quercus infectoria
D. Leaves of Camelia sinensis

D) Green

What is the color reaction of proanthocyanidins with ferric chloride?
A. Blue-black
B. Red
C. Yellow
D. Green

E) 2 5 4 1 3

Match the alkaloids in Column I with the specific tests in Column II
A. 3 5 2 1 4
B. 1 2 6 3 4
C. 2 6 1 4 5
D. 6 1 2 4 3
E. 2 5 4 1 3

C) They are derived from amino acids but do not have nitrogen in a heterocyclic ring.

Protoalkaloids are defined by which characteristic?
A. They are derived from amino acids and have nitrogen in a heterocyclic ring.
B. They are not derived from amino acids.
C. They are derived from amino acids but do not have nitrogen in a heterocyclic ring.
D. They are always produced by bacteria.

B) Vincristine

What alkaloid is known for its anticancer properties and is derived from a complex coupling of two different indole alkaloid units (bisindole)?
A. Campthothecins
B. Vincristine
C. Colchicine
D. Epipodophyllotoxins
E. Sanguinarine

A) Arecoline

Which alkaloid is used in veterinary medicine for its anthelminthic properties?
A. Arecoline
B. Strychnine
C. Brucine
D. Caffeine

D) 6 5 2 1 4

Match the class of alkaloids in Column I with their precursor compounds in Column II. Selections may be repeated.
A. 6 2 6 1 4
B. 5 2 5 2 4
C. 2 6 4 3 5
D. 6 5 2 1 4
E. 2 5 2 3 4

A) Mayer’s test

Which test uses potassium mercuric iodide for alkaloid detection?
A. Mayer’s test
B. Wagner’s test
C. Valser’s test
D. Dragendorff’s test
E. Marme’s test

C) Cineole

What is the primary chemical constituent of Eucalyptus oil?
A. Menthol
B. Eugenol
C. Cineole
D. Limonene
E. Thymol

E) Peltate glandular trichomes

Which microscopic feature is characteristic of volatile oil glands in peppermint leaves?
A. Oil tubes or canals (vittae)
B. Schizogenous oil glands
C. Lacticifers
D. Calcium oxalate crystals
E. Peltate glandular trichomes

B) Water and Steam distillation

Which method is used for extracting volatile oils from spices like cloves?
A. Expression
B. Water and Steam distillation
C. Enfleurage
D. Supercritical extraction
E. Direct steam distillation

B) Chamazulene

A thermal decomposition product responsible for the blue coloration of the oil from Matricaria chamomilla.
A. α-bisabolol
B. Chamazulene
C. Parthenolide
D. Matricin

D) 3 5 4 2 1

Match the volatile oils and terpenes in Column I with the functional class present in Column II
A. 1 2 5 4 3
B. 4 5 2 3 5
C. 2 1 4 3 5
D. 3 5 4 2 1
E. 3 4 5 2 1

E) 4 1 3 2

Match the volatile oils in Column I with the major constituents in Column II.
A. 3 4 1 2
B. 4 2 3 1
C. 2 3 4 1
D. 3 1 4 2
E. 4 1 3 2

B) Resenes

Complex neutral substances devoid of characteristic chemical properties usually found in Rosin and other natural resins. They are generally found in free state and never form esters or other derivatives.
A. Resinols
B. Resenes
C. Resinotannols
D. Resin acids
E. Balsams

A) Hashish (from Cannabis sativa)

Which of the following is an example of a pure resin?
A. Hashish (from Cannabis sativa)
B. Balsam of Peru
C. Asafetida
D. Ginger

C) II and V

Which of the following is (are) an example(s) of an oleo-gum-resin?
I. Copaiba
II. Myrrh
III. Turpentine
IV. Benzoin
V. Olibanum
A. I and II
B. II only
C. II and V
D. I and IV
E. I and III

A) A five-membered lactone ring at C-17

What is the defining structural feature of the steroid nucleus in cardenolide-type cardiac glycosides?
A. A five-membered lactone ring at C-17
B. A six-membered lactone ring at C-17.
C. One to four sugars attached to the 3-OH group of the steroid nucleus
D. An anthraquinone skeleton

A) Guignard test

What is the test for detecting cyanogenic glycosides?
A. Guignard test
B. Keller-Kiliani test
C. Borntrager's test
D. Shinoda's test
E. Legal’s test

B) Allyl isothiocyanate

Sinigrin, a glycoside found in black mustard (Brassica nigra), is an example of a glycoside. Upon hydrolysis by the enzyme myrosinase, it releases which pungent compound responsible for the characteristic taste of mustard?
A. Mandelonitrile
B. Allyl isothiocyanate
C. Allicin (diallyl thiosulfinate)
D. Acrynyl isothiocyanate
E. Alliin (S-allyl cysteine sulfoxide)

C) Keller-Kiliani test

Which test is specifically used in pharmacognosy to identify the presence of 2-deoxy sugars (e.g., digitoxose) characteristic of many cardiac glycosides?
A. Borntrager's test
B. Shinoda test
C. Keller-Kiliani test
D. Foam test
E. Baljet test

B) Capillary fragility and venous insufficiency

Flavonoid glycosides constitute a large group of plant pigments. Hesperidin, a major flavonoid glycoside found in citrus fruits, is often used in combination with other flavonoids such as Rutin to treat conditions related to:
A. High blood pressure
B. Capillary fragility and venous insufficiency
C. Bacterial infections
D. Insomnia and anxiety
E. Supportive treatment for liver problems

A) Hydroquinone

Uva ursi contains arbutin, a glycoside that yields which aglycone upon hydrolysis?
A. Hydroquinone
B. Gallic and Elagic acids
C. Corilagin
D. Ursolic acid
E. Quercitin

D) Khellin

A furanocoumarin found in Ammi visnaga, which is a potent coronary vasodilator and bronchodilator. It is the prototype for the synthetic mast-cell stabilizing drug, cromolyn sodium.
A. Methoxsalen
B. Bishydroxycoumarin (Dicumarol)
C. Capsaicin
D. Khellin
E. Chicoric acid

C) α- and β-peltatins

Chief constituent of American mandrake (mayapple) responsible for most of the purgative effects of the drug.
A. Podophyllotoxin
B. Podophyllotoxone
C. α- and β-peltatins
D. Picropodophyllin

C) I, III and IV only

Ginseng is classified as an ‘adaptogen’ (anti-stress). It is also widely promoted as an aphrodisiac. Which of the following are the triterpenoidal saponins found this plant?
I. Ginsenosides
II. Eleutherosides
III. Panaxosides
IV. Chikusetsusaponins
A. I and III only
B. I, II and III only
C. I, III and IV only
D. AOTA

C) Drying oils

Fixed oils are typically classified based on their behavior upon exposure to air, specifically their ability to form a hard film. Oils that form a hard film are called:
A. Non-drying oils
B. Semi-drying oils
C. Drying oils
D. Hydrogenated oils

B) Olive oil (Olea europaea)

Which fixed oil is a non-drying oil that is highly valued as an emollient in cosmetic and pharmaceutical preparations due to its nourishing and moisturizing properties?
A. Linseed oil (Linum usitatissimum)
B. Olive oil (Olea europaea)
C. Castor oil (Ricinus communis)
D. Coconut oil (Cocos nucifera)

A) Cystic fibrosis

Pancreatin, from animal pancreas, contains amylase, lipase, and proteases. What condition is it primarily used for?
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Gastric ulcer
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Diarrhea
E. Hypertension

B) Papain

It has been referred to as “vegetable pepsin” because it contains enzymes somewhat similar to pepsin; however, unlike pepsin, it’s active in acid, neutral, or even alkaline media. In the meat packing industry, it is used extensively for tenderizing beef.
A. Sutilains
B. Papain
C. Bromelain
D. Diastase
E. Urokinase

D) 3 6 5 1 2

Match the plants in Column I with their scientific name in Column II
A. 3 6 5 2 4
B. 1 5 4 6 2
C. 2 4 1 3 5
D. 3 6 5 1 2
E. 1 4 3 2 5

C) 2 4 1 3 5

Match the plant growth regulators in Column I with their functions in Column II
A. 3 1 4 2 5
B. 5 4 3 1 2
C. 2 4 1 3 5
D. 2 5 4 2 1
E. 1 4 3 2 5

D) Smooth ER

Oxidation of drugs mainly takes place in:
A. Cytoplasm
B. Nucleus
C. Rough ER
D. Smooth ER

A) Glycolysis

All occur in the mitochondria EXCEPT:
A. Glycolysis
B. ETC
C. TCA Cycle
D. Ketogenesis

A) Glucose-6-phosphatase dehydrogenase

The enzyme activated with low Insulin:Glucagon ratio is:
A. Glucose-6-phosphatase dehydrogenase
B. Glucokinase
C. Pyruvate kinase
D. Glucose-6-phosphatase

C) Promotes gluconeogenesis

Effect of glucagon:
A. Retards glycogenolysis
B. Retards ketogenesis
C. Promotes gluconeogenesis
D. Decrease plasma amino acids

C) Fats

Preferred fuel for body in fasting state?
A. Carbohydrates
B. Proteins
C. Fats
D. Amino acids

C) Has slower absorption

Low glycemic index food is:
A. Easily digestible
B. Increase plasma glucose
C. Has slower absorption
D. Increase glycogen deposits

C) Racemase enzyme interconverts d and l isomers into each other

Which of the following statement about isomerism is NOT correct?
A. Racemic mixture is equal d and l isomers present
B. Racemic mixture is optically inactive
C. Racemase enzyme interconverts d and l isomers into each other
D. Enantiomerism is also known as D and L-Isomerism

A) D-Galactose and D-Glucose

Which of the following are epimers:
A. D-Galactose and D-Glucose
B. D-Galactose and L-Glucose
C. D-Mannose and L-Mannose
D. D-Glucose and L-Glucose

D) Keratan Sulfate

Glycosaminoglycans present in cornea:
A. Dermatan sulfate
B. Hyaluronic acid
C. Chondroitin Sulfate
D. Keratan Sulfate

A) Barfoed’s test

Which of the following is a test to distinguish between monosaccharides and disaccharides?
A. Barfoed’s test
B. Seliwanoff’s test
C. Bial’s Test
D. Osazone test

D) Oxidation of both C1 and C6 of Glucose

Saccharic acid is produced as a result of:
A. Oxidation of C1 of Glucose
B. Oxidation of C6 of Glucose
C. Reduction of C1 of Glucose
D. Oxidation of both C1 and C6 of Glucose

D) Lactate

The major metabolic product produced under normal circumstances by erythrocytes and by muscle cells during intense exercise, and is recycled through the liver in Cori’s cycle. The metabolite is:
A. Oxaloacetate
B. Glycerol
C. Alanine
D. Lactate

B) 2 ATP + 2 NAD

In anaerobic glycolysis, end product is
A. 2 ATP + 2 NAD
B. 2 ATP + 2 NADH
C. 2 ATP only
D. 4 ATP + 2 FADH2

C) Glucokinase, Phosphofructokinase, Pyruvate Kinase

Which of the following enzymes catalyze the irreversible step of glycolysis
A. Glucokinase, Phosphofructokinase, Pyruvate Carboxylase
B. Hexokinase, Fructose-1,6-Bisphosphatase, Pyruvate Kinase
C. Glucokinase, Phosphofructokinase, Pyruvate Kinase
D. Enolase, fructose-1,6-Biphospahatase, Phosphofructokinase

A) Acetyl CoA

Which is not the intermediate of TCA cycle?
A. Acetyl CoA
B. Alpha-Ketoglutarate
C. Oxaloacetate
D. Succinyl CoA

B) Isocitrate dehydrogenase

Rate limiting step of TCA is:
A. Citrate synthase
B. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
C. Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
D. NOTA

D) Succinate Dehydrogenase

Which enzyme of TCA is present in Inner Mitochondrial Membrane (IMM)?
A. Alpha-Ketoglutarate Dehydrogenase
B. Malate Dehydrogenase
C. Fumarate Dehydrogenase
D. Succinate Dehydrogenase

C) 5 ATP

If aerobic glycolysis uses Glycerol-3-phosphate shuttle, how many ATPs are produced?
A. 2 ATP
B. 7 ATP
C. 5 ATP
D. 3 ATP

B) Occurs in mitochondrial matrix

Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding ETC?
A. Coupling of oxidation and phosphorylation occurs
B. Occurs in mitochondrial matrix
C. Known as chemiosmotic theory
D. ADP + Pi → ATP

B) Prevents ATP synthesis and electron transport chain is increased

True about 2, 4-Dinitrophenol is?
A. Prevents ATP synthesis and electron transport chain
B. Prevents ATP synthesis and electron transport chain is increased
C. Blocks electron transport chain but ATP synthesis is normal
D. Directly blocks ATP

A) Complex I to Coenzyme Q

Barbiturates act on which step of mitochondrial respiratory chain?
A. Complex I to Coenzyme Q
B. Coenzyme Q to Complex III
C. Complex II to Coenzyme Q
D. Cytochrome C to Complex IV

C) Alanine

All are substrates of gluconeogenesis, EXCEPT:
A. Lactate
B. Lysine
C. Alanine
D. Glycerol
E. Pyruvate

C) Liver

Majority of Gluconeogenesis occurs in:
A. Muscles
B. Kidneys
C. Liver
D. Intestines

C) Requires a bifunctional enzyme (debranching and transferase)

Glycogenolysis is best described by which of the following statements?
A. It involves enzymes cleaving beta (1-4) glycosidic linkage
B. Requires activation of glycogen synthase
C. Requires a bifunctional enzyme (debranching and transferase)
D. It is activated by the hormone insulin

D) 6 1 5 4 3

Match the Glycogen Storage Diseases in Column I with their description in Column II
A. 6 3 5 2 4
B. 1 2 6 4 3
C. 2 4 1 3 5
D. 6 1 5 4 3
E. 1 4 3 2 5

D) Produces ribose 5-phosphate in oxidative phase of pathway

All are true about hexose monophosphate pathway (HMP) EXCEPT:
A. Produce NADPH in oxidative phase of pathway
B. Doesn’t produce ATP
C. Occurs in testes, ovaries, placenta and adrenal cortex
D. Produces ribose 5-phosphate in oxidative phase of pathway
E. Glucose 6-phosphatase dehydrogenase enzyme is involved

B) G6PD

NADPH is generated in the reaction catalyzed by:
A. LDH
B. G6PD
C. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
D. Alcohol Dehydrogenase

C) Protein moiety

Apoenzyme is
A. Cofactor
B. Coenzyme
C. Protein moiety
D. Prosthetic group

B) 3

Hydrolase belongs to enzyme category number:
A. 1
B. 3
C. 2
D. 4

A) Competitive

Km increases, but Vmax remains same. This is________Inhibition:
A. Competitive
B. Non-competitive
C. Irreversible
D. Uncompetitive

A) Tryptophan

Indole ring is present in:
A. Tryptophan
B. Phenylalanine
C. Tyrosine
D. Threonine

A) Proline

Amino acid which is not stable in (incompatible with) alpha-helix is:
A. Proline
B. Alanine
C. Glutamine
D. Tryptophan

A) Acidic amino acid

Non-essential amino acid group is?
A. Acidic amino acid
B. Branched chain amino acid
C. Basic amino acid
D. Aromatic amino acid

A) Leucine

Both glucogenic and ketogenic amino-acids are all EXCEPT:
A. Leucine
B. Phenylalanine
C. Tryptophan
D. Tyrosine

B) Phenylalanine

In Maple syrup urine disease, the amino acids excreted in urine are all EXCEPT:
A. Leucine
B. Phenylalanine
C. Isoleucine
D. Valine

C) Autosomal dominant

True regarding phenylketonuria EXCEPT:
A. Musty odour is due to phenylalanine in urine
B. Deficient enzyme is phenylalanine hydroxylase
C. Autosomal dominant
D. May be associated with impaired mental development
E. Infants are normal at birth

C) Transamination

The process in which amino group of amino acid is transferred to keto acid and keto group of keto acid is transferred to amino acid is called
A. Phosphorylation
B. Deamination
C. Transamination
D. Decarboxylation

B) Hepatic mitochondrial enzyme

Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase I (CPS-I) is which one of the following?
A. Cytosolic enzyme
B. Hepatic mitochondrial enzyme
C. Lysosomal enzyme
D. All of the above

A) Ornithine

Compound that enters into urea cycle and regenerated is
A. Ornithine
B. Arginine
C. Citrulline
D. Aspartate

D) 4

How many total ATPs are used by urea cycle?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

B) III, IV, V only

True about urea cycle:
I. Nitrogen of the urea comes from alanine and ammonia
II. Uses ATP during conversion of Argininosuccinate to arginine
III. On consumption of high amount of protein, excess of urea formed
IV. Occur mainly in cytoplasm
V. Synthesis of Argininosuccinate consumes energy
A. I, III, IV, V only
B. III, IV, V only
C. I, II only
D. II, III, IV only
E. AOTA

C) HGPRTase

The enzyme deficient in Lesch Nyhan syndrome is:
A. Adenosine Deaminase
B. PRPP Synthetase
C. HGPRTase
D. Xanthine Oxidase

C) Forms Okazaki fragments & needs RNA primer

TRUE about DNA Polymerase III:
A. Required for translation
B. Has DNA repair function
C. Forms Okazaki fragments & needs RNA primer
D. Has no proof-reading activity

C) To seal and nick okazaki fragments

Function of DNA ligase:
A. DNA polymerization
B. Cutting of DNA at specific site
C. To seal and nick okazaki fragments
D. Preventing negative supercoil

C) No proof reading activity

TRUE about RNA Polymerase is:
A. Requires primers
B. RNA dependent DNA Polymerase
C. No proof reading activity
D. Recognizes Shine Dalgarno sequence

C) Rho ( ) factor

Which termination protein recognizes the signal for the termination of synthesis of RNA molecule?
A. Alpha ( ) factor
B. Sigma ( ) factor
C. Rho ( ) factor
D. Core subunit (α2ββ′ ω)

A) More than one codon for a single amino acid

Degeneracy of codon means:
A. More than one codon for a single amino acid
B. More than one amino acid for a single codon
C. No punctuation in codons
D. Termination of protein synthesis

D) Peptidyl transferase

Which of the following enzyme (s) participate in protein synthesis?
A. DNA ligase
B. DNA Helicase
C. RNA polymerase
D. Peptidyl transferase
E. DNA polymerase

A) Northern blot

Test for RNA
A. Northern blot
B. Immuno blot
C. Southern blot
D. South-Western blot

C) Denature DNA, Anneal Primers, Extend DNA

Steps of PCR in sequence are:
A. Extend DNA, Anneal Primers, Denature DNA
B. Anneal Primers, Extend DNA, Denature DNA
C. Denature DNA, Anneal Primers, Extend DNA
D. Denature DNA, Extend DNA, Anneal Primers