Genetics Lab: Quizzes

1 mL is equal to ____

a.) 1 x 103 μL

b.) All of these are equal to 1 mL

c.) 1 x 109 pL (picoliters)

d.) 1000 μL

e.) None of these are equal to 1 mL

All of these are equal to 1 mL

In this lab, You will use this/these to find the concentration of an unknown solution.

Multiple choice question - select the BEST, most complete answer

a.) Absorbance Values of known concentrations

b.) Beers Law Curve Calculation

c.) All answers above are correct

d.) None of the above answers are correct

e.) a Spectrophotometer

All answers above are correct

Which of these are required for each genetics lab meeting?

Select any and all correct answers to this question.

a.) clean your lab space and return materials before you leave

b.) electronic device for accessing lab materials, using apps, etc...

c.) goggles or safety glasses available for use

d.) closed-toe shoes

e.) long pants, no rips or holes

SELECT ALL

Which of the following is an equation to determine Absorbance of a solution using a spectrophotometer?

This is found in the videos. Select best answer

a.) A = -log(I/Iø)

b.) A = ∈bC

c.) All of the above answers can be correct, depending on data collected

d.) None of the above answers are correct

e.) A = log(Iø/I)

All of the above answers can be correct, depending on data collected

This will serve as a your negative or blank control for calibrating the spectrophotometer.

Multiple choice, select best answer

a.) An empty cuvette

b.) The unknown solution

c.) A cuvette with distilled water (or solvent only of solution)

d.) One of the known concentrations of solution from dilution series

A cuvette with distilled water (or solvent only of solution)

The Beer's law equation establishes the relationship of absorbance to concentration. Which of the following is the correct definition of the terms in the equation, A = ∈bC?

Select the best answer

a.) b = Beer's constant

b.) C = coulombs

c.) A= aqueous concentration

d.) ∈ = molar absorptivity

∈ = molar absorptivity

A P200 pipette can hold a maximum volume of _______.

From what you learned in lab, select the one correct answer. (you will see questions like this in the quizzes and exam for every pipette, so make sure you know this!)

a.) Two answers are correct

b.) 200 μL

c.) 0.02 mL

d.) 0.2 mL

e.) 20 μL

Two answers are correct

In biology, an application of chemistry and physics, we can determine the concentration of unknowns by first, developing a ___________ based on the ___________concentrations of the substance tested.

Select the best answer

a.) standard curve; known

b.) none of these answers are correct

c.) standard curve; unknown

d.) unknown; Beer's law

standard curve; known

The prefix nano = 1 x ____

Select the best answer

a.) 10⁻⁶

b.) 10⁻⁹

c.) None of these answers are correct

d.) 10⁶

e.) 10⁹

10⁻⁹

In this lab, what conformation of DNA is able to fluoresce?

a.) only in AT rich DNA

b.) single stranded

c.) double stranded

d.) None of these are correct

double stranded

What would you predict if you have DNA strand that is G-C rich versus A-T rich?

a.) Annealing point will be higher

b.) none of these

c.) Melting point will be lower

d.) Annealing point will be lower

Annealing point will be higher

When the DNA is heated up, how will you know when you have reached denaturation/melting of the DNA strand?

a.) fluorescence will start

b.) fluorescence will stop

c.) it has reached 50 degrees C

d.) none of these

fluorescence will stop

Which of the following describes the base Guanine but NOT Cytosine

a.) pyrimidine

b.) 3 hydrogen bonds when binding to its compliment

c.) purine

d.) single ringed

purine

Which of the choices describes a Pyrimidine? (multiple)

a.) Double ring structure

b.) Guanine and Adenine

c.) Cytosine and Thymine

d.) Single ring structure

--> Cytosine and Thymine

--> Single ring structure

Which of the following is a good definition of an aptamer?

a.) oligonucleotides or peptides that are designed to recognize other molecules

b.) oligonucleotides or peptides that act similarly to antibodies

c.) oligonucleotides or peptides that have a specific shape and specific binding affinities

d.) All of these answers are correct

All of these answers are correct

What flourescent color will appear when translation starts to occur?

a.) Yellow

b.) Red

c.) None of the above

d.) Green

Red

What is the mechanism of action of kanamycin?

a.) It interferes with translation via inactivation of rRNA enzymes

b.) It interferes with translation via inactivation of 30s ribosome

c.) It interferes with transcription via inactivation of RNA polymerase

d.) It interferes with translation via inactivation of 40s ribosome

It interferes with translation via inactivation of 30s ribosome

Transcription is the process of...?

a.) converting a DNA code to an RNA code

b.) altering proteins to change function

c.) converting an RNA code into an amino acid sequence

d.) none of these are correct

converting a DNA code to an RNA code

In this lab, all components are added to the tube so that the process of translation and transcription occur. Which process would NOT be able to occur if tRNA was NOT added to the mixture?

a.) none of these answers are correct

b.) translation

c.) 2 of these answers are correct

d.) you would see red fluorescence only

e.) transcription

translation

What is the purpose of the sample with kanamycin in this experiment?

a.) none of these answers are correct

b.) this will be a negative control for transcription

c.) this will be a negative control for translation

d.) This will be a positive control for transcription

e.) this will be a positive control for translation

this will be a negative control for translation

What type of cells are used to explore the central dogma in this lab?

a.) Plant cell extracts

b.) E.Coli

c.) Yeast

d.) None of these answers are correct

None of these answers are correct

What is the function of the aptamer in plasmid used in this lab?

a.) to provides a yellow fluorescence

b.) to signal translation

c.) to signal transcription

d.) indirect measure of cell growth

to signal transcription

After magnetic separation, a sample appears red in the P51 Viewer and no green bead-associated fluorescence is visible. Under normal room light, however, beads can be seen along the back wall of the tube. What should the student do first?

a.) Replace the orange viewing filter with the yellow filter.

b.) Return the tube strip to the magnetic rack if necessary, allow the beads to recollect, and then quickly rotate the strip 180° so the bead-containing wall faces the viewing window.

c.) Add additional GFP DNA and repeat the expression reaction in the same tube.

d.) Vortex the sample in the P51 Viewer to distribute the beads throughout the liquid.

Return the tube strip to the magnetic rack if necessary, allow the beads to recollect, and then quickly rotate the strip 180° so the bead-containing wall faces the viewing window.

Which statement best describes how the BioBits reactions produce GFP and RFP?

a.) The added DNA becomes fluorescent after it binds components of the pellet.

b.) The pellets contain living bacterial cells that replicate and express the proteins overnight.

c.) The pellets contain cell-free transcription and translation machinery that uses the added DNA as a template.

d.) The pellets contain magnetic beads that catalyze protein synthesis.

The pellets contain cell-free transcription and translation machinery that uses the added DNA as a template.

Which molecular interaction is responsible for selectively separating GFP from RFP in this exercise?

a.) Strep-Tactin®XT recognizes green fluorescence but not red fluorescence.

b.) The GFP chromophore is attracted directly to the magnetic field, while the RFP chromophore is repelled.

c.) A Strep-tag fused to GFP binds Strep-Tactin®XT on the magnetic beads, while untagged RFP remains in solution.

d.) GFP-encoding DNA hybridizes to the magnetic beads, causing newly synthesized GFP to remain nearby.

A Strep-tag fused to GFP binds Strep-Tactin®XT on the magnetic beads, while untagged RFP remains in solution.

Suppose the experimental objective were changed so that RFP, rather than GFP, was the protein of interest. Which modification would most directly allow RFP to be purified using the same affinity system?

a.) Use the yellow filter instead of the orange filter when viewing the samples.

b.) Fuse the Strep-tag coding sequence in-frame with the RFP coding sequence and express untagged GFP.

c.) Add a greater volume of untagged RFP DNA to the BioBits reaction.

d.) Add biotin to the RFP expression reaction before the overnight incubation.

Fuse the Strep-tag coding sequence in-frame with the RFP coding sequence and express untagged GFP.

Why does the biotin-containing elution buffer release tagged GFP from the magnetic beads?

a.) Biotin competes with the Strep-tag for binding sites on Strep-Tactin®XT, allowing tagged GFP to enter the liquid fraction.

b.) Biotin increases the magnetic attraction between GFP and the magnetic rack.

c.) Biotin enzymatically cleaves the Strep-tag from GFP.

d.) Biotin selectively denatures RFP, leaving purified GFP on the beads.

Biotin competes with the Strep-tag for binding sites on Strep-Tactin®XT, allowing tagged GFP to enter the liquid fraction.

While the tube strip remains in the magnetic rack, a student slowly aspirates liquid from the side opposite the bead smear. Which transfer sequence correctly identifies the collected fractions?

a.) Initial, wash, and elution supernatants are all pooled in Tube E.

b.) Initial post-binding supernatant → Tube W; wash supernatant → Tube E; post-elution supernatant → Tube U

c.) Initial post-binding supernatant → Tube U; wash supernatant → Tube W; post-elution supernatant → Tube E

d.) Magnetic beads → Tube U; washed beads → Tube W; remaining beads → Tube E

Initial post-binding supernatant → Tube U; wash supernatant → Tube W; post-elution supernatant → Tube E

A group wants to increase the amount of purified GFP recovered in collection Tube E without changing the initial DNA concentrations. Which procedural change is most appropriate?

a.) Reduce the protein-bead binding incubation to five minutes.

b.) Use elution buffer rather than wash buffer when preparing the magnetic beads.

c.) Keep the tubes in the magnetic rack throughout the binding incubation.

d.) Incubate the protein mixture with the magnetic beads overnight in the refrigerator before magnetic separation.

Incubate the protein mixture with the magnetic beads overnight in the refrigerator before magnetic separation.

Which procedure is appropriate when adding DNA to a BioBits pellet?

a.) Dispense the DNA against the side of the tube, avoid touching the pellet, use a fresh tip for each DNA addition, and tap the tube to collect the liquid at the bottom

b.) Dispense the DNA into the tube lid and vortex the open tube until the pellet dissolves.

c.) Use the same pipette tip for GFP and RFP DNA because both samples contain DNA.

d.) Place the pipette tip directly against the pellet and pipette up and down vigorously.

Dispense the DNA against the side of the tube, avoid touching the pellet, use a fresh tip for each DNA addition, and tap the tube to collect the liquid at the bottom

A student adds several additional or prolonged wash steps to obtain a highly pure GFP sample. What outcome is most likely?

a.) GFP purity will decrease, while GFP yield will increase.

b.) Both GFP purity and GFP yield will increase.

c.) GFP purity may increase, but GFP yield may decrease because some tagged GFP can be lost during washing.

d.) Neither purity nor yield will change because tagged GFP is covalently attached to the beads.

GFP purity may increase, but GFP yield may decrease because some tagged GFP can be lost during washing.

Which of the following is the best explanation of a conditional mutant?

a.) a genetic mutation that generates a phenotype that can thrive or die, depending on environmental conditions

b.) a phenotype - environment mismatch

c.) none of these

d.) a mutation existence depends on the type of environment

a genetic mutation that generates a phenotype that can thrive or die, depending on environmental conditions

PKU, is a conditional mutation in humans, what is/are the main cause/s of the disease?

a.) None of these answers are correct

b.) exposure to environmental phenylalanine

c.) lack of a functioning phenylalanine hydroxylase

d.) 2 of these answers are correct

e.) lack of a functioning L-tyrosine reductase

2 of these answers are correct

What three types of experimental conditions will you grow yeast?

Click all that apply!

a.) Minimal Media

b.) Minimal Media with experimental supplements

c.) Complete Growth media, with experimentally subtracted ingredients

d.) Complete Growth Media

?????????

The goal of the lab is to...?

a.) Perform PCR on a gene loci to determine which yeast strain contains a mutant

b.) Determine the phenotype of the yeast, by altering environmental conditions

c.) Generate random mutations in yeast and determine which ones are conditional mutants

d.) All of these answers are correct

Determine the phenotype of the yeast, by altering environmental conditions

What classification of yeast will we be using in this lab?

a.) Schizosaccharomyces, fission yeast

b.) Schizosaccharomyces, budding yeast

c.) Saccharomyces, fission yeast

d.) Saccharomyces, budding yeast

Saccharomyces, budding yeast

What is the main purpose of including the uncut pMyst plasmid sample, Lane P, in the gel?

a.) To show the exact sizes of all restriction fragments

b.) To make the DNA ladder brighter

c.) To cut pMyst into the gene of interest

d.) To provide a comparison for how uncut circular plasmid DNA migrates

To provide a comparison for how uncut circular plasmid DNA migrates

During gel electrophoresis, which DNA fragment would be expected to travel farthest from the wells?

a.) 1,250 bp

b.) 700 bp

c.) 950 bp

d.) 250 bp

250 bp

A complete ApaLI digest of pMyst is expected to produce three fragments. Which set of fragment sizes best fits pMyst?

a.) 2,700 bp only

b.) 1,250 bp, 950 bp, and 500 bp

c.) 3,000 bp, 1,200 bp, and 500 bp

d.) 2 of these answers are corrext

1,250 bp, 950 bp, and 500 bp

pMyst is 2,700 bp long, and BamHI cuts it once. If BamHI digestion is complete, what should the main BamHI band represent?

a.) Three fragments that add up to 2,700 bp

b.) Two 1,350 bp fragments

c.) One circular 2,700 bp plasmid

d.) One linear 2,700 bp DNA molecule

One linear 2,700 bp DNA molecule

Why should each DNA sample be loaded into its own well with a fresh pipette tip?

a.) To make all DNA fragments the same size

b.) To keep the plasmid circular

c.) To make the gel run faster

d.) To prevent cross-contamination and keep each lane's result interpretable

To prevent cross-contamination and keep each lane's result interpretable

Which setup choice is most important for seeing and separating the expected pMyst DNA bands?

a.) Load all samples into one well

b.) Use no DNA ladder so the sample bands are easier to see

c.) Run the gel without electrophoresis buffer

d.) Use a 2% agarose gel with fluorescent DNA stain and a compatible blue light source

Use a 2% agarose gel with fluorescent DNA stain and a compatible blue light source

The ApaLI digest shows three fragments: 1,250 bp, 950 bp, and 500 bp. The double digest shows four fragments: 1,250 bp, 700 bp, 500 bp, and 250 bp. What does this suggest?

a.) BamHI cuts inside the 500 bp ApaLI fragment

b.) BamHI cuts inside the 950 bp ApaLI fragment

c.) BamHI cuts inside the 1,250 bp ApaLI fragment

d.) BamHI does not cut pMyst

BamHI cuts inside the 950 bp ApaLI fragment

Which set of lanes best matches the experimental design needed to build a restriction map for pMyst?

a.) Ladder, uncut pMyst, BamHI digest, ApaLI digest, and BamHI + ApaLI double digest

b.) Uncut pMyst and BamHI digest only

c.) ApaLI digest and double digest only

d.) Ladder only

Ladder, uncut pMyst, BamHI digest, ApaLI digest, and BamHI + ApaLI double digest

If the BamHI lane shows both a linear 2.7 kb band and an additional uncut/supercoiled band, what is the best interpretation?

a.) ApaLI cut the BamHI sample

b.) The DNA ladder was loaded incorrectly

c.) BamHI cut the plasmid at two sites

d.) The BamHI digest was incomplete

The BamHI digest was incomplete

Which band pattern is expected for the BamHI + ApaLI double digest of pMyst?

a.) 1,250 bp, 950 bp, and 500 bp

b.) 950 bp, 700 bp, 500 bp, 300 bp, and 250 bp

c.) 2,700 bp

d.) 1,250 bp, 700 bp, 500 bp, and 250 bp

1,250 bp, 700 bp, 500 bp, and 250 bp