BIG MICROBIO EXAM 3

1. Botulinum toxin is a(n) ____ which prevents ____ at neuromuscular junctions. A) cytotoxin, production B) neurotoxin, production C) enterotoxin, excitation D) neurotoxin, vesicle fusion

D) neurotoxin, vesicle fusion

2. Gut microbiome dysbiosis has been linked to obesity in humans. Fecal transfer has been linked to obesity in animal models. A) True, True B) True, False C) False, True D) False, False

A) True, True

3. The following foreign antigens would be detected by the innate immune system EXCEPT? A) viral RNA B) 2026 influenza proteins C) proteoglycan D) flagellin

B) 2026 influenza proteins

4. Studies using a mouse model of autism have shown which of the following can lessen the autistic behavior? A) antibiotics in their water B) a single species of bacteria in their water C) a bacterial metabolite in their water D) all are correct E) B and C

E) B and C

5. Antibody repertoire refers to the sequential production of different antibody classes (isotypes) which have different structures, half-lives and distributions in the body. They all have ____? A) different binding affinities B) the same variable region C) amino acid sequence D) the same constant region

B) the same variable region

6. Cholera toxin causes diarrhea by ____ colonic endothelial cells. A) lysing B) increasing the flow of ions out of C) increasing the flow of ions into D) inhibiting the metabolism of

B) increasing the flow of ions out of

7. Somatic cell recombination happens in immature ____ and is responsible for ____ antigen binding diversity. A) B cells, variable region B) T cells constant region. C) B and T cells, variable region D) B and T cells constant region

C) B and T cells, variable region

8. Bacterial adhesions proteins like those found at the end of pili and fimbriae give the pathogen a general stickiness. A) True B) False

B) False

9. Fermented foods and yogurt are good sources of prebiotics. A) True B) False

B) False

10. Your thymus is an essential part of the immune system located in your throat. Your thymus begins to disappear as you enter your 20's. A) True, True B) True, False C) False, True D) False, False

D) False, False

11. Why are Western blots used to confirm rapid diagnostic tests (HIV and others)? A) they don't require a blood sample B) they produce a more complex banding pattern C) they are cheaper D) they don't require antibodies

B) they produce a more complex banding pattern

12. Chimeric Antigen Receptor T cell therapy (CART) does not always work. Antigen-positive relapse means the cancer antigen has mutated. A) True B) False

B) False

13. 'Cytokine storms' can be caused by certain bacterial infections and/or cancer treatment. A) True B) False

A) True

14. Snake bite treatment is a type of ____. A) innate immunity B) artificially acquired passive immunity C) naturally acquired passive immunity D) active immunity

B) artificially acquired passive immunity

15. Thymic education refers to the process by which immature ____ are selected for their ability to recognize ____ properly. A) B cells, foreign antigen B) T cells, host/MHC/self antigen C) T cells, foreign antigen D) NK cells, viral antigen

B) T cells, host/MHC/self antigen

16. The inflammatory response includes spiking a fever. This is done by the release of a ____ which travels to the ____. A) enzyme, site of infection B) cytokine, brain C) hormone, lymphatic system D) dendritic cell, hypothalamus

B) cytokine, brain

17. After activation, B cell receptors (BCR) become ____. A) T cell receptors B) complement proteins C) Antibodies D) TikTok influencers

C) Antibodies

18. The Limulus (horseshoe crab) amebocyte lysate assay can be used to detect ____ in intravenous solutions. A) endotoxin B) antibodies C) botulinum toxin D) all of the above

A) endotoxin

19. Bacteria that are phagocytosed are destroyed in the ____ by a combination of enzymes and ____. A) golgi complex, phosphatases B) lymphosome, acid C) destruction vesicle, chloride ions D) phagolysosome, reactive oxygen species

D) phagolysosome, reactive oxygen species

20. One type of interferon is expressed when ____ is detected in a cell. Interferon released into neighboring cells prepares them to ____. A) Bacteria, increase phagocytosis B) Virus, increase cell division C) double stranded RNA, commit suicide D) low cAMP levels, increase metabolism

C) double stranded RNA, commit suicide

21. Bacterial infections have been treated successfully with fecal transplants. A) True B) False

A) True

22. Akkermansia muciniphilia is a human gut bacteria that metabolizes ____. A) maltose B) mucus C) macrophage D) other commensal bacteria

B) mucus

23. Certain types of E. coli can cause bloody diarrhea. Which type of toxin do they use to accomplish this? A) endotoxin B) tetrodotoxin C) cytotoxin D) neurotoxin

C) cytotoxin

24. The complement system is considered part of the ____ immune system because it is activated by ____. A) adaptive, gram positive bacteria only B) humoral, mycobacteria C) innate, gram negative rods D) innate, any bacteria

D) innate, any bacteria

25. Type O blood reacts with anti-Type B antibodies in serologic agglutination tests. A) True B) False

B) False

26. What do BCG treatment, halo nevi, and spontaneous remission have in common? A) They all involve bacteria B) They all are expensive C) They all suggest a role for the immune system in fighting cancer D) They have nothing in common

C) They all suggest a role for the immune system in fighting cancer

27. Serotonin is the major neurotransmitter controlling whole body innervation. Serotonin is synthesized from gut bacterial metabolites. A) True, True B) True, False C) False, True D) False, False

C) False, True

28. Coagulase is a ____ protein used to ____. A) viral protein, invade host cells B) host protein, clot blood C) bacterial, escape immune detection D) bacterial, induce apoptosis

C) bacterial, escape immune detection

29. Certain types of E. coli produce a chemical mutagen called Colibactin. Studies have shown that it causes mutations consistent with ____ in humans. A) gut dysbiosis B) obesity C) colon cancer D) skin cancer

C) colon cancer

30. Neutrophil expressed traps (NETS) are made of ____. A) oligosaccharides B) DNA C) mucin D) sugar polymers

B) DNA

31. Which of the following is NOT part of the adaptive immune system? A) B cells B) Plasma cells C) T helper cells D) Natural Killer T cells

D) Natural Killer T cells

32. Cholera toxin is a(an) ____. A) endotoxin B) cytotoxin C) enterotoxin D) neurotoxin

C) enterotoxin

33. Mast cells have receptors for an antibody variable region. There is an antibody for every allergen. A) True, True B) True, False C) False, True D) False, False

C) False, True

34. HIV specifically attacks and kills helper T cells. This drastically weakens the immune system because helper T cells ____? A) produce antibodies B) turn off the immune response C) directly destroy cells infected with HIV D) stimulate antibody and cytotoxic T cell production

D) stimulate antibody and cytotoxic T cell production

35. Activation of a naive cytotoxic T cell (Tc) requires engagement of the co-receptor pair CD28/B7. Antigen Presenting Cells and cytotoxic T cells are originally brought together by? A) HLA I and BCR B) true love C) MHC, TCR and antigen D) cytokines

C) MHC, TCR and antigen

36. There is a single antibody gene for every antigen. A) True B) False

B) False

37. Opsonins ____. A) block adhesion of bacteria or virus B) promote cell division in macrophage C) increase phagocytosis D) prevent degranulation

C) increase phagocytosis

38. Irritable Bowel Disease (IBD) is an overreaction of the immune system to ____. A) gluten B) antibiotics C) animal protein D) gut microbiota

D) gut microbiota

39. Activation of complement leads to which of the following? A) increased inflammation B) increased phagocytosis C) holes in the bacterial membrane D) all are correct

D) all are correct

40. Natural killer cells ____. A) are part of the adaptive immune response B) present antigens C) kill cells that lack MHC molecules D) activate helper T cells

C) kill cells that lack MHC molecules

41. Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Disease (SCID) is a genetic condition which ____. A) affects antibody production B) results in a lack of Natural Killer T cells C) affects T cell production D) A and B E) A and C

E) A and C

42. Sterile instruments, solutions, and IV lines can all cause fever. A) True B) False

A) True

43. The variable region of an antibody is ____. The constant region signals ____ by changing shape. A) a region for binding antigen, the brain B) enzyme activity, other enzymes C) a region for binding antigen, antigen is bound D) the ability to signal immune cells, ribosomes

C) a region for binding antigen, antigen is bound

44. The Tuberculosis skin test is type of immediate inflammatory response. A ring that causes a rash on your finger involves Mast cell activation. A) True, True B) True, False C) False, True D) False, False

D) False, False

45. The ability to make antibody quickly after a second exposure to antigen is ultimately due to ____? A) plasma cells B) memory cells C) specificity D) tolerance

B) memory cells

46. The control line in a rapid test tells you? A) You tested positive B) You have added enough sample C) the test is not working properly D) none are correct

B) You have added enough sample

47. The Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) proteins are typed in organ transplant cases. They are ____. A) markers of self B) viral antigens C) 'presenter' molecules / antigen holders D) A and C

D) A and C

48. The 'older', ____ portion of the human immune system includes receptors that detect double-stranded RNA. The ____ makes specific tools (antibodies/ T cells) to fight specific pathogens/infections. A) adaptive, innate B) immature, plasma cells C) innate, adaptive D) natural killer, cytokines

C) innate, adaptive

49. Wounds that release pus are a sign that the bacteria are able to kill white blood cells. Swelling is caused by the release of solutes by the bacteria that increases osmotic pressure. A) True, True B) True, False C) False, True D) False, False

B) True, False

50. PDL1, immune checkpoint inhibitor therapy is a(n) ____ based treatment which can ____ the number of T cells attacking a tumor. A) antibody, increase B) virus, multiple C) chemo, increase D) chemo, decrease

A) antibody, increase

PDL1 the immune checkpoint inhibitor therapy is an __________ based treatment which can __________ the number of T cells attacking the tumor

antibody, increase

Opsonins __________.

increase phagocytosis

Irritable Bowel Disease (IBD) is an overreaction of the immune system to __________.

gut microbiota

Activation of complement leads to which of the following?

increased inflammation

increased phagocytosis

holes in the bacterial membrane

(all are correct)

Natural killer cells __________.

kill cells that lack MHC molecules

Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Disease (SCID) is a genetic condition which __________.

affects antibody production

affects T cell production

(A and C)

Pathogens with heavily glycosylated outer membranes cannot activate complement.

False

The variable region of an antibody is __________. The constant region signals __________ by changing shape.

a region for binding antigen, antigen is bound

The control line in a rapid test tells you?

That you have enough of the sample

Major histocompatibility complex proteins are typed in organ transplant cases. They are?

markers of self

'presenter' molecules / antigen holders

(A and C)

The 'older', __________ portion of the human immune system includes receptors that detect double-stranded RNA. The __________ makes specific tools (antibodies/T cells) to fight specific pathogens/infections.

innate, adaptive

Wounds that release pus are a sign that the bacteria is able to kill white blood cells.

Swelling is caused by the release of solutes by the bacteria that increases osmotic pressure.

true, false

'Cytokine storms' can be caused by certain bacterial infections and/or cancer treatment.

true

Antibodies present in a newborn are considered?

naturally acquired passive immunity

Thymic education refers to the process by which __________ are selected for their ability to recognize __________ properly.

T cells, MHC

The inflammatory response includes spiking a fever. This is done by the release of a __________ which travels to the __________?

cytokine, brain

After activation, B cell receptors (BCR) become?

antibodies

The Limulus (horseshoe crab) amebocyte lysate assay can be used to detect __________ in intravenous solutions.

endotoxin

Bacteria that are phagocytosed are destroyed in the __________ by a combination of enzymes and __________?

lysosome, reactive oxygen species

One type of interferon is expressed when __________ is detected in a cell. Interferon released into neighboring cells prepares them to __________?

destruction vesicle, free radical species

In humans, specific bacterial infections have been treated successfully with fecal transplants.

true

Akkermansia muciniphilia is a human gut bacteria that metabolizes __________?

mucus

Certain types of E coli can cause bloody diarrhea. Which type of toxin do they use to accomplish this?

cytotoxin

Botulinum toxin is a(n) __________ which prevents __________ at neuro muscular junctions.

neurotoxin, vesicle fusion

GALT is part of the __________ which is responsible for defending against and __________ pathogens from outside the body.

lymphatic system, sampling

The following foreign antigens would be detected by the innate immune system EXCEPT?

2025 influenza proteins

Studies using a mouse model of autism have shown which of the following can lessen the autistic behavior?

a single species of bacteria in their water

a bacterial metabolite in their water

(B and C)

Identify the component that is NOT part of innate immune defenses.

cytotoxic T cells

Cholera toxin causes diarrhea by __________ colonic endothelial cells.

increasing the flow of ions out of

The human microbiome contains all

organisms present in and on the body

Bacterial adhesions refer to a species-specific interaction between the pathogen and molecules on the host cell surface.

true

Fermented foods and yogurt are good sources of prebiotics.

false

Which of the following can be used as a diagnostic test for a suspected infection?

florescent antibody staining

selective culture media

agglutination

(all are correct)

Why are Western blots used to confirm rapid diagnostic tests (HIV and others).

they produce a more complex banding pattern

Chimeric Antigen Receptor T cell therapy (CART) does not always work. Antigen-positive relapse means the cancer antigen has mutated.

False, true

The complement system is considered part of the __________ immune system because it is activated by __________?

innate, any bacteria

Type O blood reacts with anti-Type B antibodies in serologic agglutination tests.

False

What do BCG treatment, halo nevi, and spontaneous remission have in common?

all suggest a role for the immune system in fighting cancer

Colonic epithelial cells get most of their energy from the blood stream.

False

Coagulase is a __________ protein used to __________.

bacterial, escape immune detection

Certain types of E coli produce a chemical mutagen called Colibactin. Studies have shown that it causes mutations consistent with __________ in humans.

colon cancer

Neutrophil expressed traps (NETS) are made of?

DNA

Live virus can be used to vaccinate against influenza.

True

Cholera toxin is?

an enterotoxin

Mast cells have receptors for an antibody variable region.

There is an antibody for every allergen.

False, False

HIV specifically attacks and kills helper T cells. This drastically weakens the immune system because helper T cells __________?

stimulate antibody and cytotoxic T cell production

Activation of a naive cytotoxic T cell (Tc) requires engagement of the co-receeptor pair CD28/B7. Antigen Presenting Cells and cytotoxic T cells are originally brought together by?

MHC, TCR and antigen

There is a single antibody gene for every antigen your body will ever encounter.

False

The Tuberculosis skin test is type of immediate inflammatory response.

A ring that causes a rash on your finger involves Mast cell activation.

False, True

The ability to make antibody quickly after a second exposure to antigen is ultimately due to __________?

memory cells

Small mutations in the genes for the H and N proteins (hemagglutinin and neuraminidse) lead to changes in the infectivity of the influenza virus. This is also known as __________?

genetic drift