Module 5 - PB

Proverbs 16:3

B) Drug

Kween Yasmin is promoting a cream in her TikTok Live that claims to "eliminate acne by killing acne-causing bacteria and treating pimples." How should this product most likely be classified?
A. Cosmetic
B. Drug
C. Medical device
D. Food supplement

B) Submit a notification to the FDA

Before a cosmetic product is placed on the market, the responsible company is required to:
A. Register the product after clinical trials to the FDA
B. Submit a notification to the FDA
C. Secure a product listing from DTI
D. Obtain a marketing authorization from DTI

C) UV Filters

According to ASEAN Cosmetics Directive, Annex VII is the list of allowed for use in cosmetic products.
A. Colorants
B. Preservatives
C. UV Filters
D. Banned ingredients

D) Fluoroquinolones

Which of the following antimicrobial classes is generally NOT recommended for indiscriminate use in food-producing animals because of concerns about antimicrobial resistance and its importance in human medicine?
A. Penicillins
B. Sulfonamides
C. Tetracyclines
D. Fluoroquinolones

D) Bolus

Which dosage form is specifically designed to deliver the drug into the rumen of cattle over an extended period of time?
A. Lollipop
B. Block
C. Lozenge
D. Bolus

A) I,II,IV

Which of the following routes of administration completely avoid the first pass effect?
I. Buccal
II. Sublingual
III. Rectal
IV. Transdermal
A. I,II,IV
B. IV only
C. II,III
D. I,II,II,IV

C) Geometric dilution

During the compounding of divided powders, which mixing technique is most appropriate when a potent drug is present in a much smaller quantity than the diluent?
A. Trituration
B. Tumbling
C. Geometric dilution
D. Spatulation

A) Talc

This ingredient is commonly used in dusting powders because of its excellent absorbent and lubricating properties?
A. Talc
B. Zinc oxide
C. Kaolin
D. Starch

C) Dry or fusion method of preparation uses the molecule of water bound to citric acid as binder.

Which of the following statements about effervescent granules is correct?
A. The ratio of sodium bicarbonate, citric acid, and tartaric acid is as follows: 3.4.2:1
B. Tartaric acid, if used alone, may be too sticky. Conversely, citric acid causes the preparation to crumble.
C. Dry or fusion method of preparation uses the molecule of water bound to citric acid as binder.
D. None of these

B) They are suitable for patients who have difficulty swallowing conventional tablets.

Which of the following statements about chewable tablets is correct?
A. They are intended to be swallowed whole.
B. They are suitable for patients who have difficulty swallowing conventional tablets.
C. They are designed to dissolve only in the small intestine.
D. They must always be dissolved in water before administration

B) They are generally used to encapsulate aqueous solutions, suspensions, and semisolids.

Which of the following statements about soft gelatin capsules is incorrect?
A. The shell commonly contains gelatin, plasticizer, water, and preservative
B. They are generally used to encapsulate aqueous solutions, suspensions, and semisolids.
C. They are manufactured as mine-piece, hermetically sealed dosage forms
D. None of these

D) Sustained-release tablets follow first-order release while controlled release tablets follow zero-order release.

Which of the following statements about controlled-release tablets and sustained-release tablets is correct?
A. Controlled-release tablets and sustained-release tablets are identical terms and may be used interchangeably.
B. Controlled-release tablets are designed to release the entire drug dose immediately after administration while sustained-release tablets release the drug gradually.
C. Sustained-release tablets maintain a constant plasma drug concentration while controlled-release tablets do not.
D. Sustained-release tablets follow first-order release while controlled release tablets follow zero-order release.

A) Osmotic pressure pushes the drug through a laser-drilled orifice

Concerta (methylphenidate hydrochloride) extended release tablet is used in the treatment of ADHD. Which of the following is the release mechanism of this product?
A. Osmotic pressure pushes the drug through a laser-drilled orifice
B. Drug diffuses through an insoluble wax or plastic matrix
C. Drug is bound to an ion-exchange resin and released by exchanging ions in the GIT
D. Tablet floats in the stomach, prolonging gastric residence time

C) Glycerinated gelatin

Most commercial vaginal suppositories use a base of
A. Beeswax
B. Cocoa butter
C. Glycerinated gelatin
D. Yellow petrolatum

C) 2.019g

Christian Antolin is preparing cocoa butter suppositories containing 100 mg of phenobarbital per suppository. The density factor (f) of phenobarbital is 0.81, and the weight of a suppository made with cocoa butter alone is 2.0g What is the approximate total weight of each phenobarbital suppository?
A. 1.919 g
B. 2.000g
C. 2.019g
D. 2.081 g

B) Water-soluble base

This ointment base can be completely washed off with water.
A. Water-removable base
B. Water-soluble base
C. Absorption base
D. Oleaginous base

A) Hydrophilic ointment

The following are emulsifiable semisolid bases, EXCEPT:
A. Hydrophilic ointment
B. Hydrophilic petrolatum
C. Anhydrous Tween base
D. Anhydrous lanolin

D) Ointments are more greasy while pastes are less greasy

What is the difference between ointments and pastes?
A. Ointments have a larger amount of powdered solids while pastes have less amount of powdered solids.
B. Ointments adhere well and remain confined in the area of application while pastes are less viscous and spread beyond the area of application.
C. Ointments are porous so sweat can escape through while pastes are non-porous so sweat cannot escape through it.
D. Ointments are more greasy while pastes are less greasy

D) Purified Water

Which kind of water is obtained by distillation, ion-exchange treatment, reverse osmosis or any other suitable process; contains no added substance; and NOT used in preparations intended for parenteral administration?
A. Water for Injection
B. Sterile Water for Injection
C. Bacteriostatic Water for Injection
D. Purified Water

C) Aromatic waters

They are dilute, usually saturated, aqueous solutions of volatile oils or volatile substances mainly used as flavoring agents in preparations meant for internal use.
A. Spirits
B. Elixirs
C. Aromatic waters
D. Diluted acids
E. Douches

C) I, III

Select the statements that best describe syrups as diluting agents.
I. Syrups act both as solvents and flavoring agents.
II. Syrups are useful as diluting agents for water-insoluble drugs.
III. Glycyrrhiza Syrup is an excellent vehicle for saline substances because of its colloidal properties, sweet flavor and licorice taste.
IV. Aromatic Eriodictyon Syrup is the diluting agent of choice for masking the taste of urea.
A. II, IV
B. II, III
C. I, III
D. I, III, III
E. I, IV

D) Two of these

Desired feature/s in a suspension:
A. Particles should settle slowly and should be readily dispersible upon gentle shaking of the container.
B. The suspension should pour readily and evenly from its container
C. The particle size is variable throughout long periods of undisturbed standing
D. Two of these
E. All of these

D) None of these

Which of the following statements about calamine is correct?
A. Yellow powder that passes through a No. 100 standard mesh sieve
B. Contains NLT 98% ZnO with sufficient ferrous oxide to obtain the desired color
C. Insoluble in mineral acids and dissolves almost completely in water.
D. None of these

B) The English method involves adding water and emulsifier first then adding the oil slowly.

Which of the following is correct about the methods for preparing emulsions?
A. The Continental method relies on the use of mucilages.
B. The English method involves adding water and emulsifier first then adding the oil slowly.
C. The Forbes bottle method is used for volatile oils or other highly viscous oils.
D. In both wet gum and dry gum methods, the ratio of oil:water:emulsifier for preparing the primary emulsion is generally about 2:4:1.

B) For injection

Identify the official type of parenteral product that consists of sterile powder containing a drug that is unstable in aqueous solution and must be reconstituted with a sterile liquid diluent before intravenous administration.
A. Injection
B. For injection
C. Injectable suspension
D. For injectable suspension

C) Lactated Ringer's Injection

Which of the following large volume injections is a fluid and electrolyte replenisher and a systemic alkalizer?
A. Amino Acid Injection V
B. Ringer's Injection
C. Lactated Ringer's Injection
D. Dextrose Injection (5%)

A) Dry powder inhaler

Which type of inhalation device relies primarily on the patient's inspiratory effort to disperse and aerosolize the powdered medication?
A. Dry powder inhaler
B. Metered-dose inhaler
C. Soft mist inhaler
D. Nebulizer

B) A monolithic TDDS provides a declining drug release rate, while a membrane controlled TDDS provides a constant drug release rate.

Which of the following BEST differentiates a monolithic TDDS from a membrane-controlled TDDS?
A. A monolithic TDDS contains the drug in a reservoir, while a membrane-controlled TDDS disperses the drug throughout a polymer matrix.
B. A monolithic TDDS provides a declining drug release rate, while a membrane controlled TDDS provides a constant drug release rate.
C. A monolithic TDDS provides zero-order drug release, while a membrane-controlled TDDS provides first-order drug release.
D. If damaged, a monolithic TDDS has a higher risk of dose dumping than a membrane-controlled TDDS.

D) Technetium-99m Sulfur Colloid

Which radiopharmaceutical is used in the scanning of liver, spleen, and bone marrow?
A. Technetium-99m Medronate
B. Technetium-99m Sestamibi
C. Sodium iodide I-131 capsule/solution
D. Technetium-99m Sulfur Colloid

D) Providing medication therapy management to individual patients

Which of the following activities is NOT considered a function of industrial pharmacy?
A. Formulation and development of drug delivery systems
B. Quality control and quality assurance of pharmaceutical products
C. Large-scale manufacturing and packaging of drug products
D. Providing medication therapy management to individual patients

C) Overage may be justified only if scientifically supported by stability data and approved by regulatory authorities.

A manufacturer considers adding a 5% average of the active pharmaceutical ingredient (API) to compensate for drug degradation during storage. According to CGMP principles, how should this decision be evaluated?
A. Overage is always acceptable if it ensures potency throughout shelf life.
B. Overage can be decided solely by the production team to improve yields.
C. Overage may be justified only if scientifically supported by stability data and approved by regulatory authorities.
D. Overage is discouraged and should never be used, even when stability loss is proven.

A) Microcrystalline cellulose

The formulation of Mentha cordifolia (Yerba Buena Leaf) tablet contains the following inactive ingredients: microcrystalline cellulose, gelatin, colloidal silicon dioxide, sodium starch glycolate, and magnesium stearate. Which of the given ingredients is the diluent?
A. Microcrystalline cellulose
B. Gelatin
C. Colloidal silicon dioxide
D. Sodium starch glycolate
E. Magnesium stearate

D) IV>II>III>I

Arrange the following artificial sweeteners according to their sweetness level (sweetest to least sweet):
I. Na cyclamate
II. Saccharin
III. Acesulfame-K
IV. Splenda
A. IV>I>II
B. IV>II>II
C. IV>II>I>II
D. IV>II>II>I

C) Cutter mill

Identify the milling equipment used for grinding fibrous, crude animal and vegetable drugs.
A. Hammer mill
B. Roller mill
C. Cutter mill
D. Ball mill
E. Edge runner mill

B) Raw materials are continuously fed while the blended product is simultaneously discharged.

The manufacturer replaced its V-shell blender with a continuous mixer to improve production efficiency. Which operational change is expected?
A. The mixer must be stopped after every batch for unloading before the next cycle begins.
B. Raw materials are continuously fed while the blended product is simultaneously discharged.
C. Materials are loaded, blended, and discharged as a single batch.
D. The residence time of the powder inside the mixer is fixed and cannot be adjusted.

C) The edges break off easily during compression

Which of the following problems is most likely to occur when tablet granules are overrided before compression?
A. Increased sticking and picking during compression
B. Delayed tablet disintegration due to high moisture content
C. The edges break off easily during compression
D. Both A and B

A) Spray-drying

Identify the process which consists of bringing together a highly dispersed liquid and a sufficient volume of hot air to produce evaporation and drying of liquid droplets.
A. Spray-drying
B. Spray-congealing
C. Fluid bed granulation
D. Spheronization

C) Bridging

Identify the problem where powders with poor flowability form a cohesive arch-shaped obstruction above the hopper outlet.
A. Caking
B. Ratholing
C. Bridging
D. Bleeding
E. Blooming

B) Picking

During tablet compression, the manufacturer observes that granules are adhering specifically to the embossed logo on the punch, causing portions of the logo to be pulled away from the finished tablets. Which tablet defect is most likely occurring?
A. Sticking
B. Picking
C. Capping
D. Chipping
E. Binding

B) to round the edge and build tablet size

In sugarcoating of tablets, subcoating is done:
A. to prevent moisture absorption
B. to round the edge and build tablet size
C. to smoothen the surface
D. to prevent the tablet from breaking

D) provides water solubility or permeability

Determine the role of an alloying substance in a non-aqueous film coating solution.
A. enhances spreadability of the coat
B. produces smooth thin film coat
C. produces flexibility and elasticity to the coat
D. provides water solubility or permeability

C) Three statements are correct

Tablet Coating defects:
I. Mistering is the reduced adhesion of film from the tablet core due to rapid drying.
II. Blooming is the presence of oily film due to incompatibilities in the ingredients.
III. Orange peel is a rough, non-glossy film surface due to Inadequate spreading of coating solution before drying
IV. Blushing is the presence of whitish specks or haziness of film due to precipitation of polymer,
A. Only one statement is correct
B. Two statements are correct
C. Three statements are correct
D. All statements are correct
E. None of the statements are correct

C) Melting

The following steps are involved in the production of hard gelatin capsule shells, EXCEPT:
A. Dipping
B. Stripping
C. Melting
D. Trimming
E. Spinning

D) Cloth dusting

A finishing method for HGCs wherein the filled capsules are rubbed with an oil-impregnated cloth. It imparts gloss to the capsules as it removes loose particles.
A. Pan polishing
B. Brushing
C. Dipping
D. Cloth dusting

D) Wrap the suppositories individually in foil

Cocoa butter suppositories may develop a white, powdery deposit on their surface during storage, a phenomenon known as "blooming." Which of the following is the most appropriate measure to prevent this problem?
A. Add white wax to the cocoa butter base
B. Pour the melted base into a preheated mold
C. Spray the mold cavities with SLS before pouring the melted base
D. Wrap the suppositories individually in foil

A) Carbomer 934

Rx Clear Aqueous Gel with Dimethicone
Purified Water 59.8% Carbomer 934 0.5% Triethanolamine 1.2% Glycerin 34.2% Propylene Glycol 2.0% Dimethicone 2.3% Sodium hydroxide 1%
Which component acts as the gelling agent?
A. Carbomer 934
B. Triethanolamine
C. Glycerin
D. Propylene Glycol
E. Dimethicone

D) All of these

A vortex develops at the center of the vessel when liquids are mixed by a centrally-mounted vertical-shaft impeller. Vortex formation may be avoided by:
A. Mounting the impeller to an inclined position
B. Using baffles
C. Changing the tank geometry
D. All of these

E) Sodium EDTA

Which of the following is used as an antioxidant in the formulation of parenterals?
A. Sodium chloride
B. Sodium hydroxide
C. Sodium benzoate
D. Sodium bicarbonate
E. Sodium EDTA

C) Parallel filtration provides greater accuracy and longer shelf-life of filters compared with series filtration

Which of the following statements about filtration is incorrect?
A. Glass wool filters can be used for highly reactive substances.
B. Integrity of HEPA filters is tested using the dioctyl phthalate test.
C. Parallel filtration provides greater accuracy and longer shelf-life of filters compared with series filtration
D. HEPA filters can remove 99.97% of particles with size greater than 0.3μm from the air.
E. None of these

A) Acacia

Find the emulsifying agent described as salts of D glucuronic acid classified as hydrophilic colloid which forms an o/w emulsion.
A. Acacia
B. Bentonite
C. Gelatin
D. Sorbitan monooleate

B) Detergents have HLB values of 13 to 16.

Find the correct statement about the HLB values of various surface active agents.
A. Antifoaming agents have HLB values of 3 to 6.
B. Detergents have HLB values of 13 to 16.
C. Water-in-oil emulsifiers have higher HLB values than oil-in-water emulsifiers.
D. A surfactant having an HLB value of 10 can be used as emulsifier for w/o emulsions

A) 0.75 g Span 80, 1.25 g Tween 80

Calculate the weight of emulsifying agent (Span 80 and Tween 80) required to produce a stable emulsion in the prescription below.
Rx Mineral oil 25 g Emulsifying agent 2 g Preservative 0.2 g Purified water, q.s. 100 g
The HLB for mineral oil is 11, the HLB of Span 80 is 4.3. and the HLB of Tween 80 is 15.
A. 0.75 g Span 80, 1.25 g Tween 80
B. 1.25 g Span 80, 0.75 g Tween 80
C. 0.54 g Span 80, 1.46 g Tween 80
D. 1.46 g Span 80, 0.54 g Tween 80

C) Adjust the densities of both the internal and external phase so that their densities are the same.

Which of the following can be employed to minimize creaming in emulsions?
A. Reduce the viscosity of the external aqueous phase
B. Increase the size of the globules with a homogenizer
C. Adjust the densities of both the internal and external phase so that their densities are the same.
D. Adjust the ratio of Span and Tween so that their weights are the same.

C) Flocculated suspensions are more likely to form a hard cake.

Which of the following is incorrect regarding suspensions?
A. Deflocculated suspensions have particles that settle slowly,
B. Flocculated suspensions are easier to redisperse.
C. Flocculated suspensions are more likely to form a hard cake.
D. Electrolytes are examples of flocculating agents.

A) Class 100-ISO Class 5

Which of the following correctly matches the cleanroom classification with its modern ISO equivalent?
A. Class 100-ISO Class 5
B. Class 1,000-ISO Class 5
C. Class 10,000-ISO Class 6
D. Class 100,000-ISO Class 6

D) All four statements are correct.

Dry heat sterilization:
I. Used for sterilizing fixed oils and petroleum
II. A dry heat oven should be set at 160 to 170 °C for 2 to 4 hours
III. The primary lethal process is considered to be oxidation of cell constituents
IV. Bacillus atrophaeus is the most suitable biological indicator
A. Only one statement is correct.
B. Two statements are correct.
C. Three statements are correct.
D. All four statements are correct.

C) Pull seal method

Which ampoule sealing method involves heating the neck of the ampoule just below the tip, leaving a small portion of the tip exposed so that it can be grasped with forceps or another mechanical device during the sealing process?
A. Tip seal method
B. Bead seal method
C. Pull seal method
D. Two of these

D) Type NP glass

Abi Marquez was assigned to compound a sterile parenteral preparation. Which type of glass container is the least suitable for packaging this product?
A. Type I glass
B. Type II glass
C. Type III glass
D. Type NP glass

A) Filament

Hair-like string inside the bottle
A. Filament
B. Overpress
C. Split
D. Check

C) Hydrochloric acid

A pharmaceutical scientist compares the predominant Intermolecular forces present in several substances. Which of the following substances exhibits significant Keesom forces?
A. Carbon tetrachloride
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Hydrochloric acid
D. Iodine

C) ΔE = EB + EA

Identify the statement/mathematical expression which does NOT express the First Law of Thermodynamics.
A. States that energy is conserved.
B. Forms of energy can be interconverted, but the sum of energies remain constant
C. ΔE = EB + EA
D. ΔE is equal to zero for a cyclic process in a closed system

D) 0th Law of Thermodynamics

If A = C and B = C then A = B.
A. 1st Law of Thermodynamics
B. 2nd Law of Thermodynamics
C. 3rd Law of Thermodynamics
D. 0th Law of Thermodynamics

B) II, III, IV

Select the physical properties that are dependent on the structural arrangement of the atoms within the molecule
I. Molecular weight
II. Optical rotation
III. Viscosity
IV. Refractive index
A. I, III
B. II, III, IV
C. II, IV
D. I, II, IV

A) Solid A + Solid B

What does Phase I represent in the phase diagram (Figure 1) below?

A. Solid A + Solid B
B. Solid A + Melt
C. Solid B + Melt
D. Melt

B) All three axes are unequal in length, and none of the interaxial angles is 90°

Which of the following statements correctly describes the triclinic crystal system?
A. All three axes are equal in length and intersect at 90°
B. All three axes are unequal in length, and none of the interaxial angles is 90°
C. Two axes are equal in length, and all interaxial angles are 90°
D. All three axes are unequal in length, but all interaxial angles are 90°

C) I, IV

Select the statements which best characterize polymorphs.
I. Polymorphs have different stabilities and may spontaneously convert from the metastable form at a temperature to the stable form
II. Polymorphs have identical melting points, x-ray crystal and diffraction patterns, and solubilities, even though they are chemically different.
III. Graphite is a less stable polymorph of carbon than is diamond.
IV. One polymorph may be more active therapeutically than another polymorph of the same drug.
A. I, II, III, IV
B. III, IV
C. I, IV
D. I, II, IV

C) 40%

A sample of magnesium oxide powder with a true density of 3.58 g/cm³ weighs 143.2 g. When poured into a graduated cylinder, it occupies a bulk volume of 67 cm³. Calculate the total porosity of the powder.
A. 20%
B. 30%
C. 40%
D. 50%

D) Sedimentation

This method of determining particle size employs the settling of particles in a liquid of a relatively low density under the influence of a gravitational or centrifugal field and makes use of an Andreasen apparatus
A. Particle volume measurement
B. Sieving
C. Optical microscopy
D. Sedimentation

D) The volume of a gas is directly proportional to its pressure.

According to the ideal gas equation, which of the following statements is NOT true, assuming the other variables remain constant?
A. The volume of a gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature.
B. The volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure
C. The volume of a gas is directly proportional to the number of moles of gas.
D. The volume of a gas is directly proportional to its pressure.

B) 1.95 atm

Using the Clausius-Clapeyron equation, compute the vapor pressure of water at 120°C. The vapor pressure of water at 100°C is 1 atm, and ΔHvap remains constant at 9720 cal/mol over the temperature range in
A. 1.52 atm
B. 1.95 atm
C. 2.28 atm
D. 1.75 atm

B) 18.16 atm

An aqueous glucose solution has a concentration of 0.755 M and is maintained at 20°C. What is the osmotic pressure of the solution?
A. 17.98 atm
B. 18.16 atm
C. 25.48 atm
D. 25.93 atm

A) Only one statement is correct

Class II Methods of Adjusting Isotonicity
I. The constant 111.11 in the equations for the second method represents the volume of solution of 0.9% NaCl that contains 1g of NaCl
II. A hypertonic solution causes swelling hence Class II methods of adjusting isotonicity is used.
III. In Sprowls method, the E value is fixed at 0.3.
IV. The diluting vehicle in the White Vincent Method must absolutely be isotonic.
A. Only one statement is correct
B. Two statements are correct
C. Three statements are correct
D. All statements are correct
E. All statements are incorrect

A) 0.17

Calculate the approximate E value of cocaine hydrochloride (MW 339.81 g/mol) which is a uni-univalent electrolyte.
A. 0.17
B. 0.22
C. 0.24
D. 0.26

B) 0.020

What is the maximum buffer capacity of an acetate buffer with a total concentration of 0.035 mole per liter?
A. 0.018
B. 0.020
C. 0.024
D. 0.022

B) It is the minimum amount of protective colloid required to prevent the coagulation of a gold sol

Which of the following statements correctly describes the gold number of a protective colloid?
A. It is the minimum amount of electrolyte required to coagulate a gold sol.
B. It is the minimum amount of protective colloid required to prevent the coagulation of a gold sol
C. It is the minimum amount of electrolyte that can be added to a gold sol without causing coagulation.
D. It is the minimum amount of gold sol required to prevent the coagulation of a colloid.

A) Greater than the cohesive forces within the liquid

Capillary action occurs when the adhesive forces between a liquid and the surface of a capillary are:
A. Greater than the cohesive forces within the liquid
B. Less than the cohesive forces within the liquid
C. Equal to the cohesive forces within the liquid
D. Absent, while cohesive forces remain present

B) Hydrophilic ends at the inner core and hydrophobic ends at the outer surface

Determine the position of the hydrophobic and hydrophilic ends in a reverse micelle
A. Hydrophobic ends at the inner core and hydrophilic ends at the outer surface
B. Hydrophilic ends at the inner core and hydrophobic ends at the outer surface
C. Both hydrophilic and hydrophobic at the inner core
D. Both hydrophilic and hydrophobic at the outer surface

B) IV

Materials can be divided into Newtonian and non Newtonian flow. Figure 2 below shows the representative flow curve diagram (aka rheogram) of four different materials. Which figure represents a pseudoplastic material?

A. II
B. IV
C. III
D. I

C) Castor oil, Chloroform

Select the Newtonian liquids.
A. Glycerin, Gold colloid
B. Mayonnaise, Mineral oil
C. Castor oil, Chloroform
D. Ethyl alcohol, Ethylcellulose

C) Hydroquinone

Which of the following forms a clathrate complex?
A. EDTA
B. Starch-iodine
C. Hydroquinone
D. Chlorophyll

C) 300 hours

A drug degrades according to first-order kinetics with a rate constant of 2.31 × 10⁻³ h⁻¹. Approximately how long will it take for the drug concentration to decrease from 90 mg/mL to 45 mg/mL?
A. 100 hours
B. 200 hours
C. 300 hours
D. 400 hours

D) Increasing the particle size decreases the dissolution rate resulting in a slower onset of action

Which of the following statements about the rate of dissolution of a solid API into an aqueous biological environment is true?
A. Increasing the particle size decreases the dissolution rate resulting in a quicker onset of action
B. Increasing the particle size increases the dissolution rate resulting in a quicker onset of action
C. Increasing the particle size increases the dissolution rate resulting in a slower onset of action
D. Increasing the particle size decreases the dissolution rate resulting in a slower onset of action

B) BCS Class II

Classify compounds that are of low solubility and high permeability, such that their bioavailability is limited by their solvation rate.
A. BCS Class I
B. BCS Class II
C. BCS Class III
D. BCS Class IV

D) Refuse to dispense the antibiotic without a valid prescription

A patient requests an antibiotic without a prescription. The pharmacist knows it is against regulations but the patient insists, saying they cannot afford a doctor's visit. What should the pharmacist do?
A. Dispense the antibiotic if the patient signs a waiver.
B. Sell the antibiotic but advise the patient to consult a doctor later.
C. Give a lower dose of antibiotic to minimize risk.
D. Refuse to dispense the antibiotic without a valid prescription

D) Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act

RA 9165 is also known as:
A. The Generics Act
B. Special Law on Counterfeit Drugs
C. Universally Accessible Cheaper and Quality Medicines Act
D. Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act

A) Level III

Mika Salamanca has just finished her Pharmacy Services NC III course from TESDA. According to the Philippine Qualifications Framework, what is her PQF Level?
A. Level III
B. Level IV
C. Level V
D. Level VI

A) Fonz is a Pharmacy Aide while Esnyr is a Pharmacy Assistant.

Fonz and Esnyr are currently working in Davao Conyo Pharmacy. Fonz's tasks include cleaning work areas, assisting in placing of prices on products, and assisting in the stocking of products in the shelves. Esnyr's tasks include arranging the display, monitoring the supply of pharmaceutical products, and dispensing of OTC pharmaceutical products. Which of the following statements is correct regarding their employment?
A. Fonz is a Pharmacy Aide while Esnyr is a Pharmacy Assistant.
B. Fonz is a Pharmacy Assistant while Esnyr is a Pharmacy Technician.
C. Fonz and Esnyr are both Pharmacy Assistants.
D. Fonz is a Pharmacy Aide while Esnyr is a Pharmacy Technician.

B) March 11, 2027

Because of medically proven drug addiction, Sebastian Rodrigo's Pharmacist Certificate of Registration (COR) was revoked on March 11, 2025. A petition to reinstate or reissue his revoked COR can be filed after.
A. March 11, 2026
B. March 11, 2027
C. March 11, 2028
D. March 11, 2029

A) 7-Eleven branches

The following establishments are classified as Category A, EXCEPT
A. 7-Eleven branches
B. 3rd class municipal health units
C. Philippine Children's Medical Center
D. Lloyd Laboratories

D) Class D

Toni Fowler has undergone breast implant removal surgery after having her implants for 10 years. The FDA classifies breast implants as medical device.
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

C) No, it is regulated by the FDA as an adjunct treatment in cisplatin chemotherapy.

In 2024, Mariel Padilla posted photos of her "gluta drip" session conducted at her husband's Senate office. This drew public criticism and backlash toward the couple. Under existing FDA regulations, is a "gluta drip" considered a cosmetic product for skin whitening?
A. Yes, it is regulated by the FDA as a cosmetic product for skin whitening
B. No, it is regulated by the FDA as a dietary supplement.
C. No, it is regulated by the FDA as an adjunct treatment in cisplatin chemotherapy.
D. No, it is not regulated by the FDA

A) Adulterated

The FDA has inspected Dexter's Laboratory and found violations with cGMP standards. An assay of the phenylephrine tablets they produce, however, showed them to be pure. The company's product would be considered as:
A. Adulterated
B. Misbranded
C. Neither adulterated nor misbranded
D. Both adulterated and misbranded

A) Dr. Edwin Mercado

President Ferdinand Marcos Jr. has the power to impose a maximum retail price on any or all drugs and medicines in the country upon the recommendation of which of the following officials?
A. Dr. Edwin Mercado
B. Atty. Paolo Teston
C. Dr. Jose Pujalte Jr.
D. Atty. Franklin Antony Tabaquin IV
E. Dr. Teodoro Herbosa

C) Apologize for the misunderstanding and apply the 20% senior citizen discount, as the purchase booklet is no longer a requirement for availing of the discount.

Lola Nidora, a senior citizen, visited Aldub Pharmacy to purchase the medicines prescribed during her recent medical consultation. Upon payment, she was surprised that the total amount did not include the 20% senior citizen discount. The pharmacy assistant explained that the discount could not be granted because Lola Nidora did not present her senior citizen purchase booklet. Lola Nidora then approached you, the branch pharmacist, and asked whether she could still avail of the senior citizen discount. What is the most appropriate course of action?
A. Inform Lola Nidora that the pharmacy assistant is correct and that the discount cannot be granted without the purchase booklet.
B. Advise Lola Nidora to return with her purchase booklet before the discount can be applied.
C. Apologize for the misunderstanding and apply the 20% senior citizen discount, as the purchase booklet is no longer a requirement for availing of the discount.
D. Tell Lola Nidora to wait until you finish your inventory before addressing her concern

D) Fine of five hundred thousand pesos to ten million pesos and life imprisonment to death

Due to an explosion, a shabu factory was discovered in a rental property in Tanza, Cavite. At least 20 kilograms of illegal drugs were being produced in the said laboratory. Two Indonesians and one Filipino were involved in the said operation. What would be the penalty imposed on them?
A. Fine of ten thousand pesos to fifty thousand pesos and imprisonment of six months and one day to four years
B. Fine of fifty thousand pesos to two hundred thousand pesos and imprisonment of six years and one day to twelve years
C. Fine of one hundred thousand pesos to five hundred thousand pesos and Imprisonment of twelve years and one day to twenty years
D. Fine of five hundred thousand pesos to ten million pesos and life imprisonment to death

A) Administrative fine of not less than P100,000 but not more than P500,000

Charlize Ruth owns a licensed drugstore in Quezon City She knowingly acquired counterfeit tablets labeled as Biogesic (Paracetamol) from an unauthorized source and intentionally sold them to customers while representing them as genuine products in order to increase her profits. If found guilty under RA 8203, what is the most appropriate administrative penalty?
A. Administrative fine of not less than P100,000 but not more than P500,000
B. Administrative fine of not less than P100,000 but not more than P500,000
C. Revocation of the establishment's License to Operate (LTO)
D. Administrative fine of not less than P50,000 but not more than P1,000,000

C) Impossible

Pharmacist Alex Eala received the following prescription (Figure 3):

What type of prescription error was incurred?
A. Erroneous
B. Violative
C. Impossible
D. No error was incurred

D) Do not fill, keep the prescription, and report it to the nearest DOH office

What should Pharmacist Alex Eala do with the type of prescription from the previous number?

A. Fill immediately.
B. Contact the prescriber first and fill only after the clarification.
C. Fill, keep the prescription, and report it to the nearest DOH office.
D. Do not fill, keep the prescription, and report it to the nearest DOH office

D) February 20, 2019

When was the Universal Health Care (UHC) Act signed?
A. March 23, 2020
B. June 20, 2018
C. July 21, 2016
D. February 20, 2019

B) Republic Act No. 3720

Identify the law violated when MX3 advertises its herbal food supplement on TV using testimonials claiming that the product can cure various diseases, despite having no approved therapeutic claim or sufficient scientific evidence to support such claims.
A. Republic Act No. 10918
B. Republic Act No. 3720
C. Republic Act No. 8203
D. Republic Act No. 6675