NURC101 Anatomy & Physiology — Final Exam Master Reviewer

Comprehensive practice flashcards covering anatomical terminology, cellular processes, tissues, organ systems, and arterial blood gas (ABG) interpretation for the JRU NURC101 Anatomy & Physiology Final Examination.

What three guiding questions are recommended to ask when studying each concept in the NURC101 Final Exam Master Reviewer?

(1) What is it? (2) What does it normally do? (3) What happens when it is disrupted?

What is the difference between a sagittal plane and a midsagittal plane?

A sagittal plane divides the body into right and left portions, whereas a midsagittal plane divides the body into equal right and left portions.

Which anatomical plane divides the body into anterior and posterior portions?

The frontal (or coronal) plane.

Which anatomical plane divides the body into superior and inferior (upper and lower) portions?

The transverse plane.

What do the directional terms anterior, posterior, superior, and inferior mean?

Anterior means front; posterior means back; superior means above; inferior means below.

What do the directional terms proximal and distal mean?

Proximal means closer to the point of attachment; distal means farther away from the point of attachment.

In anatomical terminology, what is the directional relationship between the wrist and the elbow?

The wrist is distal to the elbow.

What is the primary cellular function of mitochondria?

$ATP$/energy production.

What are the cellular functions of ribosomes and the rough endoplasmic reticulum (rough ER)?

Ribosomes are responsible for protein synthesis; the rough ER is responsible for protein synthesis and transport.

What are the primary functions of the Golgi apparatus?

Modifies, sorts, packages, and prepares proteins for secretion.

If a cell synthesizes proteins but cannot package them for secretion, which organelle is malfunctioning?

The Golgi apparatus.

How is diffusion defined, and does it require energy?

Movement of substances from high concentration to low concentration; it requires no $ATP$.

What is osmosis?

The movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane.

What is active transport, and does it require energy?

Movement of substances from low to high concentration; it requires $ATP$.

What process occurs when intracellular vesicles fuse with the membrane to release their contents outside the cell?

Exocytosis.

What is the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis during cell division?

Mitosis is the division of the nucleus, whereas cytokinesis is the division of the cytoplasm.

What are the four primary tissue types in the human body?

Epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous tissue.

How do simple and stratified epithelial tissues differ in structure and primary function?

Simple epithelium has one layer and is suited to rapid diffusion; stratified epithelium has multiple layers and provides better protection against repeated abrasion.

Which specific epithelial tissue types are suited for rapid diffusion and abrasion protection, respectively?

Simple squamous is suited for rapid diffusion; stratified squamous is suited for abrasion protection.

What is the primary role of connective tissue, and what is characteristic of dense connective tissue?

Connective tissue provides support and binding; dense connective tissue contains abundant fibers.

How do skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle differ regarding voluntary control and anatomical location?

Skeletal muscle is voluntary; cardiac muscle is involuntary and located in the heart; smooth muscle is involuntary and located in hollow organs.

What is the primary function and regenerative capacity of nervous tissue?

Communication/electrical signaling; it has limited regenerative capacity.

What are the three layers of the skin ordered from superficial to deep?

Epidermis $\rightarrow$ dermis $\rightarrow$ hypodermis.

What are the key physiological functions of the skin?

Protection, prevention of fluid loss, barrier against microorganisms, temperature regulation, sensation, and vitamin-D-related function.

What two critical clinical complications result directly from extensive skin damage?

Excessive fluid loss and increased infection risk.

What causes jaundice, and how does it clinically present?

Bilirubin accumulation; it causes yellowing of the skin and eyes.

What is the sequence of events from red blood cell breakdown to bilirubin excretion?

RBC breakdown $\rightarrow$ bilirubin $\rightarrow$ liver processing $\rightarrow$ excretion.

Which bones make up the axial skeleton?

Skull, vertebral column, and thoracic cage (the central axis).

Which bones make up the appendicular skeleton?

Limbs, shoulder girdle, and pelvic girdle (appendages).

What is the function of the epiphyseal (growth) plate, and what is the consequence of an epiphyseal fracture in a child?

It supports lengthwise bone growth; a fracture can disrupt longitudinal growth.

What are the four sequential stages of bone fracture healing?

Hematoma $\rightarrow$ fibrocartilage callus $\rightarrow$ bony callus $\rightarrow$ remodeling.

What is the physiological role of vitamin D in relation to the skeletal system?

Vitamin D supports calcium absorption.

How do osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis differ in their underlying causes?

Osteoarthritis is degenerative/wear-related joint damage; rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune joint disease.

What causes the joint inflammation seen in gout?

Uric acid crystal deposition.

What joint actions are produced by the biceps and quadriceps muscles, respectively?

Biceps produces elbow flexion; quadriceps produces knee extension.

What is the function of acetylcholine (ACh) at the neuromuscular junction?

It is released by the motor neuron and binds receptors on skeletal muscle, initiating depolarization.

According to the sliding filament model of muscle contraction, what do myosin and actin do, and what happens to sarcomere length?

Myosin pulls actin; sarcomeres shorten while individual filaments retain their lengths.

What is the step-by-step sequence of events in skeletal muscle contraction starting from neurotransmitter release?

ACh release $\rightarrow$ receptor binding $\rightarrow$ depolarization $\rightarrow$ calcium-related activation $\rightarrow$ actin-myosin interaction $\rightarrow$ contraction.

How do afferent and efferent neural pathways differ in direction of transmission?

Afferent pathways carry sensory information toward the CNS (Afferent = Arrives); efferent pathways carry motor output away from the CNS (Efferent = Exits).

What are the five sequential components of a reflex arc?

Receptor $\rightarrow$ sensory neuron $\rightarrow$ spinal interneuron/CNS $\rightarrow$ motor neuron $\rightarrow$ muscle.

In a reflex arc, which pathway represents sensory input and which represents motor output?

Sensory input is afferent; motor output is efferent.

What is the pathophysiological difference between an embolic/ischemic stroke and a hemorrhagic stroke?

In an embolic/ischemic stroke, blood flow is blocked; in a hemorrhagic stroke, a blood vessel ruptures and bleeding occurs.

What vital homeostatic functions are regulated by the hypothalamus?

Temperature, water balance, hunger, thirst, and endocrine regulation.

What is the primary function of Cranial Nerve VII (Facial)?

Facial expression, such as smiling and puffing cheeks.

What are the primary functions of Cranial Nerve IX (Glossopharyngeal) and Cranial Nerve X (Vagus)?

CN IX mediates swallowing/pharyngeal functions; CN X mediates swallowing/pharyngeal functions and parasympathetic functions.

What are the distinct visual functions of retinal rods and cones?

Rods mediate dim-light and peripheral vision; cones mediate color and fine detail.

What specific movements or positions are detected by the maculae and crista ampullaris in the vestibular system?

Maculae detect head position relative to gravity; the crista ampullaris detects angular/rotational movement.

What is the optic disc, and why does it create a blind spot?

It is the site of optic nerve exit; it creates a blind spot because it lacks photoreceptors.

How is visual accommodation defined?

Adjustment of the lens to focus at different distances.

What is the primary physiological defect in Type 1 diabetes?

Inadequate insulin production due to beta-cell dysfunction/destruction.

What is the primary physiological defect in Type 2 diabetes?

Insulin resistance, with inadequate insulin action relative to need.

What is the primary action of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), and what occurs when ADH is deficient?

ADH promotes water reabsorption ("saves water", $H_2O$); deficiency causes less water conservation and large volumes of dilute urine.

What are the primary actions of aldosterone on electrolytes, and what occurs when aldosterone is deficient?

Aldosterone promotes sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion ("saves sodium", $Na^+$); deficiency reduces sodium retention and affects fluid balance.

How do excess and deficient levels of thyroid hormones impact metabolic activity?

Excess thyroid hormones increase metabolic activity, whereas deficiency decreases it.

What is the physiological function of calcitonin?

Decreases blood calcium and promotes calcium storage in bone.

What are the primary functions of red blood cells (RBCs) and white blood cells (WBCs)?

RBCs function in oxygen transport; WBCs function in immune defense.

What is the function of platelets, and what clinical sign indicates low platelet levels?

Platelets form the initial platelet plug/clot; low platelets cause increased bruising and bleeding.

What role does vitamin K play in hemostasis?

It supports clotting-factor production.

What hormone stimulates red blood cell production, and what physiological trigger stimulates its release?

Erythropoietin (EPO); it is stimulated in response to low oxygen availability.

In ABO blood typing, what antigens are indicated by anti-A agglutination, anti-B agglutination, both, or neither?

Anti-A agglutination indicates A antigen; anti-B indicates B antigen; both indicates AB; neither indicates O.

Can anti-A and anti-B testing results alone determine a patient's Rh status?

No; anti-A and anti-B results alone cannot determine Rh status because Rh testing is separate.

What is the complete sequence of blood flow through the heart, lungs, and systemic circulation?

Venae cavae $\rightarrow$ right atrium $\rightarrow$ tricuspid valve $\rightarrow$ right ventricle $\rightarrow$ pulmonary valve $\rightarrow$ pulmonary artery $\rightarrow$ lungs $\rightarrow$ pulmonary veins $\rightarrow$ left atrium $\rightarrow$ mitral/bicuspid valve $\rightarrow$ left ventricle $\rightarrow$ aortic valve $\rightarrow$ aorta $\rightarrow$ body.

Which heart valves control blood flow from RA to RV, RV to pulmonary artery, LA to LV, and LV to aorta?

Tricuspid: RA to RV; pulmonary: RV to pulmonary artery; mitral/bicuspid: LA to LV; aortic: LV to aorta.

What mechanical valve closures produce the S1 and S2 heart sounds?

S1 is caused by closure of the atrioventricular (AV) valves; S2 is caused by closure of the semilunar valves.

What is the function of the coronary circulation?

It supplies the heart muscle.

What does an electrocardiogram (ECG) record?

The electrical activity of the heart.

What are the anatomical locations of the radial, carotid, brachial, and dorsalis pedis pulse sites?

Radial = wrist; carotid = neck; brachial = arm; dorsalis pedis = foot.

How does severe blood loss impair hemodynamics, and what is the body's compensatory priority?

Decreased blood volume reduces venous return and cardiac output; compensatory responses help maintain vital-organ perfusion.

What are the three primary functions of the lymphatic system?

Return excess tissue fluid to the blood, immune defense, and absorption of certain dietary fats.

Why does tissue swelling occur during the inflammatory response?

Increased capillary permeability allows more fluid to enter tissues.

What is the primary role of the thymus in the immune system?

It is important for T-cell development/maturation.

What types of adaptive immunity are mediated by B cells and T cells, respectively?

B cells mediate humoral immunity (and can become plasma cells and memory cells); T cells mediate cellular immunity.

What is the specific function of plasma cells in humoral immunity?

Produce antibodies.

What is the primary role of memory cells in the immune system?

They support faster future responses to the same antigen.

In pulmonary gas exchange, in which directions do oxygen ($O_2$) and carbon dioxide ($CO_2$) move?

$O_2$ moves from alveoli to blood; $CO_2$ moves from blood to alveoli down partial-pressure gradients.

What mechanical changes occur in the diaphragm, thoracic volume, and alveolar pressure during quiet inspiration and expiration?

Inspiration: diaphragm contracts $\rightarrow$ thoracic volume increases $\rightarrow$ alveolar pressure falls $\rightarrow$ air moves in; Expiration: diaphragm relaxes $\rightarrow$ thoracic volume decreases $\rightarrow$ alveolar pressure rises $\rightarrow$ air moves out.

What is the fundamental relationship between thoracic volume and intrapulmonary pressure during respiration?

Volume and pressure are inversely related: as thoracic volume increases, pressure decreases ($\text{volume} \uparrow \rightarrow \text{pressure} \downarrow$).

What is the primary physiological function of pulmonary surfactant?

Lowers alveolar surface tension and helps prevent collapse.

What is the formula for Vital Capacity (VC), and what is the VC if tidal volume is $450\,\text{mL}$, IRV is $2,800\,\text{mL}$, and ERV is $1,000\,\text{mL}$?

$\text{VC} = \text{tidal volume} + \text{inspiratory reserve volume} + \text{expiratory reserve volume}$; $450\,\text{mL} + 2,800\,\text{mL} + 1,000\,\text{mL} = 4,250\,\text{mL}$.

What is peristalsis in the digestive tract?

Wave-like muscular contractions that move contents through the digestive tract.

What are the primary physiological roles of the small intestine versus the large intestine?

The small intestine is the principal site of nutrient absorption; the large intestine functions in water absorption and fecal formation/elimination.

What is the purpose of the hepatic portal circulation?

It carries absorbed substances from the digestive tract to the liver for processing.

During glomerular filtration, what substances pass into the filtrate and what are normally retained in the blood?

Pressure drives small substances from blood into filtrate; blood cells and most large plasma proteins are normally retained in the blood.

What is the normal physiological handling of glucose after it is filtered by the glomerulus?

Glucose is filtered but normally reabsorbed, so little should remain in final urine.

How does a substantial fall in glomerular filtration pressure affect the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?

GFR generally decreases when glomerular filtration pressure falls substantially.

What is the sequence of events in the Renin–Angiotensin–Aldosterone System (RAAS) triggered by low renal perfusion or low blood pressure?

Low renal perfusion/low blood pressure $\rightarrow$ renin $\rightarrow$ angiotensin II $\rightarrow$ vasoconstriction + aldosterone $\rightarrow$ sodium and water retention $\rightarrow$ supports blood volume and pressure.

What anatomical characteristic of the female urethra has clinical significance for bladder infections?

The female urethra is relatively short, which facilitates the movement of bacteria toward the bladder.

What is the sequential pathway of sperm through the male reproductive tract?

Testes $\rightarrow$ epididymis $\rightarrow$ vas deferens $\rightarrow$ ejaculatory duct $\rightarrow$ urethra.

Which male accessory glands contribute secretions to seminal fluid?

Seminal vesicles, prostate, and bulbourethral glands.

How does a vasectomy work, and why does ejaculation still occur following the procedure?

A vasectomy blocks/cuts the vas deferens, interrupting sperm transport; ejaculation can still occur because accessory glands continue producing seminal fluid.

What are the four phases of the female menstrual cycle in order?

Menstrual phase $\rightarrow$ follicular/proliferative phase $\rightarrow$ ovulation $\rightarrow$ luteal/secretory phase.

What does the ovarian follicle become after ovulation, and what hormone does it secrete?

The follicle becomes the corpus luteum, which secretes progesterone to support the endometrium for possible implantation.

Where does fertilization normally occur in the female reproductive tract?

In the uterine tube, usually its ampulla.

How does Rh sensitization develop in pregnancy, and what is its clinical consequence?

An Rh-negative mother can become sensitized to Rh-positive fetal RBC antigens; maternal antibodies may affect a future Rh-positive pregnancy.

What are the normal arterial blood gas (ABG) reference ranges for pH, PaCO2, and HCO3-?

$\text{pH}: 7.35\text{–}7.45$; $\text{PaCO}_2: 35\text{–}45\,\text{mmHg}$; $\text{HCO}_3^-: 22\text{–}26\,\text{mEq/L}$.

What does the ROME acronym stand for in ABG interpretation?

Respiratory Opposite (pH and $\text{PaCO}_2$ move in opposite directions) and Metabolic Equal (pH and $\text{HCO}_3^-$ move in the same direction).

What is the ABG interpretation for: pH 7.29, PaCO2 55 mmHg, and HCO3- 26 mEq/L?

Uncompensated respiratory acidosis.

What is the ABG interpretation for: pH 7.50, PaCO2 44 mmHg, and HCO3- 33 mEq/L?

Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis.

What is the ABG interpretation for: pH 7.48, PaCO2 30 mmHg, and HCO3- 21 mEq/L?

Partially compensated respiratory alkalosis.

What is the ABG interpretation for: pH 7.30, PaCO2 32 mmHg, and HCO3- 15 mEq/L?

Partially compensated metabolic acidosis.