Veterinary Antiparasitic Drugs: Dewormers, Heartworm, Flea and Tick Control

What are antiparasitic drugs used for?

They are used against intestinal parasites, fleas, ticks, heartworms, and other parasites.

What is the role of veterinary technicians in antiparasitic treatment?

They provide client education and stay current with the latest products.

Define anthelmintic.

A drug used to kill helminth parasites from a host.

What is a cestode?

A tapeworm.

What is an ectoparasite?

A parasite that lives on the outside of the host.

What is an endoparasite?

A parasite that lives on the inside of the host.

What are nematodes?

Parasitic worms, including roundworms, lungworms, kidney worms, hookworms, and whipworms.

What are platyhelminths?

Flatworms, including tapeworms and flukes.

What is the action of benzimidazoles?

They attack the parasite's nervous system.

Name a benzimidazole used in veterinary medicine.

Fenbendazole (Panacur®).

What is the clinical use of febantel?

It works similarly to benzimidazoles and is added to other antiparasitics like Drontal Plus®.

What do organophosphates do?

They inhibit the enzyme cholinesterase, affecting the nervous system of parasites.

What are common side effects of organophosphates?

Excessive salivation, vomiting/diarrhea, muscle tremors, and miosis.

What is the action of tetrahydropyrimidines?

They mimic acetylcholine, causing paralysis of the worm.

What is a common drug in the macrocyclic lactones class?

Ivermectin (Heartgard® Plus).

What is piperazine used for?

It is an anticholinergic drug that blocks neuromuscular transmission of roundworms.

What is the action of anticestodal drugs?

They disrupt the cellular metabolism of tapeworms and flukes.

What is a common drug for treating coccidia?

Ponazuril (Marquis®).

What are coccidiostats?

Drugs that do not kill coccidia but help manage the infection.

What is pyrimethamine used for?

It is a treatment for EPM (Sarcocystis neurona) in horses.

What should be consulted regarding antiparasitic drugs?

Reference material for withdrawal times.

What is a common side effect of benzimidazoles?

Vomiting and diarrhea (V/D) are uncommon side effects.

What is the contraindication for organophosphates?

Do not give with other organophosphates.

What is the clinical use of ivermectin?

It works against a wide range of internal and external parasites.

What is a contraindication for macrocyclic lactones?

They are contraindicated in Collies and Collie mixes due to hypersensitivity.

What is the importance of flea control in relation to tapeworms?

Flea control is needed to eliminate Dipylidium caninum.

What enzyme does the drug that inhibits folic acid metabolism in parasites affect?

An enzyme that converts folic acid to be inactive.

What are common side effects of the drug that inhibits folic acid metabolism?

Anorexia, vomiting, and myelosuppression.

What is the brand name of Metronidazole used for treating Giardia?

Flagyl®.

What is the brand name of Albendazole used for treating Giardia?

Valbazen®.

What is the active ingredient in Immiticide® used for treating heartworm disease?

Melarsomine Dihydrochloride.

What type of injection is used for administering Melarsomine Dihydrochloride?

Deep IM injection.

What are some adverse side effects of Melarsomine Dihydrochloride?

Pain, swelling, tenderness at injection site, nodules, coughing, gagging, depression, lethargy, lung congestion, vomiting.

What is the recommended needle gauge for dogs under 22 lbs when administering Melarsomine?

23 gauge 1 inch needle.

What is a contraindication for using Melarsomine in dogs?

Dogs with severe heartworm disease, breeding, pregnant, or lactating bitches.

When should microfilaricides be administered after adulticide treatment?

6 weeks after administration.

Name one microfilaricide used in heartworm treatment.

Ivermectin, milbemycin oxime, or levamisole.

What is the active ingredient in Heartgard® Plus?

Ivermectin.

What is the monthly prevention schedule for Ivermectin in dogs?

Monthly prevention; also prevents against hookworms and roundworms.

What is a contraindication for using Ivermectin?

Collies.

What is the active ingredient in Milbemycin Oxime?

Interceptor® or Sentinel®.

What additional control does Sentinel® provide besides heartworm prevention?

Flea control (Lufenuron).

What does Moxidectin (Advantage Multi®) prevent in dogs?

Heartworm, hookworms, roundworms, whipworms, and fleas.

What is the active ingredient in ProHeart® 6?

Moxidectin.

What is the duration of heartworm prevention with ProHeart® 12?

12-month injectable.

What is the active ingredient in Revolution®?

Selamectin.

What is the primary use of Nitenpyram (Capstar®)?

To kill adult fleas within 30 minutes of administration.

What are pyrethrins commonly used for?

Flea and tick control in various formulations.

What is a common side effect of Amitraz?

Sedation for 24-72 hours following treatment.

What is the mode of action for isoxazolines like Bravecto?

Binds at sites to inhibit insect GABA channels.

What does the product Comfortis® contain?

Spinosad oral tablet.

What is the active ingredient in Profender®?

Praziquantel and emodepside.

What is the purpose of insect growth regulators (IGRs)?

To prevent the development of flea eggs.

What is the active ingredient in Frontline Plus®?

Fipronil.

What does the product Trifexis® prevent?

Heartworm and intestinal parasites, and kills fleas.

What is the recommended use for environmental sprays?

Environmental use only.

What is the primary function of dips in ectoparasite treatment?

To provide treatment after shampooing.