Rad 204: Exam 3 Study Guide

40

To keep exposure times to a minimum during mobile radiography, the recommended SID should be _____ inches

1, 2, and 3

Which of the following should be available on every mobile radiography machine?

1. Lead apron

2. Radiographic technique chart

3. Measuring caliper

6 feet

During a mobile exposure, the radiographer should be a minimum of _______________ from the patient or part being radiographed.

90 degrees

During mobile radiography, the radiographer ideally should be standing at what degree of angle from the primary beam?

Distance

What is the single most effective means of radiation protection for the technologist during mobile radiography?

Supine

Which position is recommended for a mobile AP chest examination on a critically ill patient?

Distortion

What will result if the image receptor is leaning away from the patient on a mobile lateral decubitus during examination of the chest or abdomen?

Area prepared for the patient

The sterile field is the:

should be fresh for each shift

Institution-approved attire worn in the OR:

tell OR staff immediately

What should be done if the sterile field is compromised?

at least once a week

Less frequently used x-ray equipment in the OR should be cleaned

Shoulder to level of sterile field

Sterile gowns are considered sterile from:

not lift the drapes above table level to avoid the sterile field

When positioning the IR under the OR table, the radiographer should:

Hip pinning

Which of the following surgical procedures require the C-arm to be positioned between the patient's legs?

Subarachnoid space

Where is contrast media instilled during a myelogram?

A. subarachnoid space

B. epudural space

C. subclural space

D. spinal cord

All of the above

Which of the following is a contraindication for myelography?

A. Arachnoiditis

B. Blood in the CSF

C. Increased intracranial pressure

D. All of the above

L3-4

What is the common injection site for a Myelogram?

A. C1-2

B. T12

C. L4-5

D. L3-4

HNP

what is the most common clinical indication for a myelogram?

A. Benign tumors

B. Malignant tumors

C. herniated nucleus pulposus (HNP)

D. Increased intracranial pressure

To widen the interspinous spaces

During a myelogram performed with the patient prone, why is a positioning block (bolster) placed under the abdomen for the lumbar puncture?

A. To force the contrast media toward the head

B. For patient comfort

C. To widen the interspinous spaces

D. To prevent reflux of contrast media back into the syringe

Excreted by the kidneys

How is the water-soluble contrast media eliminated following a myelogram?

A. Withdrawn through a needle/syringe

B. Remains in the spinal cord

C. Excreted by the kidneys

D. Excreted by the lungs

Computed tomography

Which diagnostic imaging exam is usually performed immediately after a myelogram?

All of the above

What is the patient prep for a knee arthrography exam?

A) A valid consent must be signed

B) Shave the injection site if it has hair

C) Explain the procedure good

D) all of the above

arthroscope

Which of the following instruments is not required during a knee arthrogram?

A. razor

B. 10 mL syringe

C. 20-gauge needle

D. arthroscope

the physician injects local anesthetic using a 10 mL syringe with a 21- to 25-gauge needle

Which of the following is generally true for an arthrogram of a knee?

a. with the horizontal beam projection method, views are taken of each meniscus with the knee rotated 30º between exposures

b. the amount of aspirated point (synovial) fluid should equal the amount of injected contrast media

c. approximately 20 mL of positive contrast media is used

d. the physician injects local anesthetic using a 10 mL syringe with a 21- to 25-gauge needle

To coat the soft tissue structures with contrast media

During an arthrogram, why is the knee flexed following injection of contrast media before imaging?

A. To reduce the viscosity of the contrast media

B. To force the contrast media outside of the joint if there is a tear

C. To coat the soft tissue structures with contrast media

D. none of the above; the knee should not be flexed

Cartilage injuries, ligament injuries, loose bodies growing in joint spaces, joint rupture, Baker's Cyst, Synovial disease

What are the Indications for doing knee arthography?

Baker's cyst

Give an example of non-traumatic pathology of the knee joint indicating arthrography.

A and b

What are the clinical indications of knee arthrography?

a. tears of the joint capsule, menisci, ligaments

b. baker cyst

c. patella fx

d. a and b

Injury or tear to rotator cuff

Which of the following is not an indication for knee arthrography?

a. Injury or tears to rotator cuff

b. Evaluate for Baker's cyst

c. Injury or tears to collateral or cruciate ligaments

d. Injury or tears to menisci

Scapular Y projection

Which of the following projections would NOT be commonly performed during a shoulder arthrogram?

a) Anteroposterior external/internal rotation projections

b) Scapular Y projection

c) Glenoid fossa projection

d) Transaxillary projection

lower extremity

What type of venogram should be done in a general diagnostic room?

a. superior vena cavogram

b. upper extremity

c. lower extremity

d. none of the above

identification of deep vein thrombosis

What is the primary indication for the use of lower extremity venography as a diagnostic procedure?

a. identification of Ewing's syndrome

b. identification of deep vein thrombosis

c. confirmation of the presence of fibrosarcoma

d. localization of vascular tumors

great (long) saphenous vein

Which is the longest vein in the body?

a. great (long) saphenous vein

b. inferior vena cava

c. femoral vein

d. popliteal vein

ovaries & uterine tubes

Parts of the female reproductive system include the:

a. uterine tube & ductus deferens

b. ovaries & ductus deferens

c. ovaries & uterine tubes

d. all of the above

the ovaries, oviducts (fallopian or uterine tubes), uterus, and vagina as well as external genitalia collectively known as the vulva.

The female reproductive system includes internal organs:

hysterosalpingography

A radiographic exam of the uterus & uterine tubes is termed:

a. vaginography

b. pelvimetry

c. pelvic pneumography

d. hysterosalpingography

uterine cavity & the patency of the uterine tubes

The purpose of hysterosalpingography is to demonstrate the:

a. interior of the cervix, uterus, uterine tubes, & ovaries

b. uterine cavity & the patency of the uterine tubes

c. interior of the uterus for neoplasms or other abnormalities

d. degree of openness of the cornu between the uterus & uterine tubes

all of the above

Which of the following is a contraindication to hysterosalpingography?

a. pregnancy

b. uterine bleeding

c. pelvic inflammatory disease

d. all of the above

positive, nonionic, water-soluble

The most commonly preferred contrast medium for hysterosalpingography is:

a. positive, ionic, oil-based

b. positive, nonionic, water-soluble

c. negative, carbon dioxide gas

d. thin barium sulfate

2 in. superior to the symphysis pubis

Imaging for hysterosalpingography includes centering of the central ray & image receptor:

a. to the level of the ASISs

b. to the symphysis pubis

c. 2 in. superior to the symphysis pubis

d. 4 in. superior to the symphysis pubis

10-12

The uterine (fallopian) tubes are approximately __________ cm. in length.

a. 3-4

b. 6-8

c. 10-12

d. 15-18

10-12 cm; 1-4 mm

The uterine tubes are approximately ______ in length and ______ in diameter

determined by the density of the medium

The velocity of an ultrasound beam is:

a. proportional to frequency cubed

b. determined by the density of the medium

c. constant in speed

d. constant for all solids

2-30 MHz

The frequency for diagnostic ultrasound is in the range of:

a. 1-10 MHz

b. 2-30 MHz

c. 20-20,000 MHz

d. 100,000 Hz-1 MHz

piezoelectric

The principle on which the ultrasound transducer operates is the __________ effect.

a. photoelectric

b. crystalline

c. transducer

d. piezoelectric

cycles per second

Hertz measures:

a. cycles per second

b. amplitude of an echo

c. number of waves

d. wavelength

anechoic

The echo pattern of a cyst can be referred to as:

a. anechoic

b. echogenic

c. hyperechoic

d. hypoechoic

reflected at tissue interfaces

Ultrasonic sound waves are:

a. poorly transmitted by liquids

b. poorly transmitted by solids

c. reflected at tissue interfaces

d. constant in speed

air or gas in the gastrointestinal tract

Sometimes examinations in the abdominal cavity are difficult to perform because of:

a. air or gas in the gastrointestinal tract.

b. bony anatomy.

c. tissue differences.

d. too much fluid

all of the above

The purpose of bone densitometry is to:

a. establish the diagnosis of osteoporosis

b. assess the response to osteoporosis therapy

c. measure bone mineral density

d. all of the above

L1-L5

Which vertebral region(s) is/are analyzed during a DEXA scan?

a. T12

b. T7-L1

c. L1-L5

d. L4-S2

vertebrae

The most common osteoporosis fracture is found in the:

a. femur

b. vertebrae

c. hip

d. ankle

similar to natural background radiation

Radiation dose for DXA scans is:

a. twice as much as for a diagnostic lumbar x-ray

b. half as much as for a lumbar CT exam

c. similar to a diagnostic hand x-ray

d. similar to natural background radiation

fracture risk for the patient

In regards to bone densitometry, the T-score is used to assess:

a. fracture risk for the patient

b. if the measured BMD is reasonable

c. patient age & bone loss

d. the reference population

T-score and Z-score

The standards being used with dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry to compare the patient's bone density measurements are:

a. A-score & T-score

b. A-score & Z-score

c. T-score & Z-score

d. all of the above

precision

Reproducibility as applied for DXA systems is also termed:

a. system reliability

b. quality assessment

c. accuracy

d. precision