T Final Mock Board Exam: AIRCRAFT CONSTRUCTION, REPAIR, AND MODIFICATION

1. Who is responsible for making the entry in the maintenance records after an annual, 100 hour, or progressive inspection?

A. The designee or inspector representing the FAA Administrator.

B. The pilot

C. The person approving or disapproving for return to service.

D. The owner or operator of the aircraft.

C. The person approving or disapproving for return to service.

2. Which is an appliance major repair?

A. Overhaul of a hydraulic pressure pump.

B. Troubleshooting and repairing in flight entertainment system

C. Troubleshooting and repairing broken circuits in landing light circuits.

D. Repairs to a propeller governor or its control.

A. Overhaul of a hydraulic pressure pump.

3. An aircraft with an empty weight of 2,100 pounds and an empty weight CG +32.5 was altered as follows: 1. two 18-pound passenger seats located at +73 were removed; 2. structural modifications were made at +77 increasing weight by 17 pounds; 3. a seat and safety belt weighing 25 pounds were installed at +74.5; and 4. radio equipment weighing 35 pounds was installed at +95. What is the new empty weight CG?

A. +34.65.

B. +33.68.

C. +34.01.

D. -34.65.

B. +33.68.

4. (1) In the corrosion process, it is the cathodic area of dissimilar cathodic material that corrodes. (2) In the Galvanic or Electro-Chemical Series for metals, the most anodic metals are those that will give up electrons most easily. Regarding above statements,

A. Both are true

B. Only (2) is true

C. Only (1) is true

D. None are true

B. Only (2) is true

5. Galvanic corrosion is likely to be most rapid and severe when

A. Metals are similar

B. the surface areas of the anodic and cathodic metals are approximately the same.

C. the surface area of the anodic metal is smaller than the surface area of the cathodic metal.

D. the surface area of the cathodic metal is smaller than the surface area of the anodic metal.

C. the surface area of the anodic metal is smaller than the surface area of the cathodic metal.

6. Which of the listed conditions is NOT one of the requirements for corrosion to occur?

A. The presence of an electrolyte.

B. Electrical contact between an anodic area and a cathodic area.

C. The presence of a passive oxide film.

D. Presence of Anode and Cathode

C. The presence of a passive oxide film.

7. The aluminum code number 1100 identifies what type of aluminum?

A. Aluminum alloy containing magnesium

B. 99 percent commercially pure aluminum.

C. Aluminum alloy containing zinc.

D. Aluminum alloy containing 11 percent copper.

B. 99 percent commercially pure aluminum.

8. A bolt with a single raised dash on the head is classified as an

A. NAS standard aircraft bolt.

B. Clevis bolt

C. AN corrosion-resistant steel bolt.

D. NAS close tolerance bolt.

C. AN corrosion-resistant steel bolt.

9. The core material of Alclad 2024-T4 is

A. commercially pure aluminum, and the surface material is commercially pure aluminum alloy.

B. commercially pure aluminum, and the surface material is heat-treated aluminum alloy.

C. strain-hardened aluminum alloy, and the surface material is commercially pure aluminum.

D. heat-treated aluminum alloy, and the surface material is commercially pure aluminum.

D. heat-treated aluminum alloy, and the surface material is commercially pure aluminum.

10. Which of the following materials maybe inspected using the magnetic particle inspection method? 1. Magnesium alloys. 2. Aluminum alloys. 3. Iron alloys. 4. Copper alloys. 5. Zinc alloys.

A. 1,2,4,5

B. 2

C. 3

D. 1,2,3

C. 3

11. What type of corrosion attacks grain boundaries of aluminum alloys which are improperly or inadequately heat treated?

A. Galvanic

B. Filiform.

C. Intergranular.

D. Fretting.

C. Intergranular.

12. Structural members designed to support loadings applied perpendicular to their axes. They are long, straight bars having a constant cross-sectional area.

A. Plates

B. Shaft

C. Bulkheads

D. Beams

D. Beams

13. The replacement of a damaged vertical stabilizer with a new identical stabilizer purchased from the aircraft manufacturer is considered a _____.

A. minor repair

B. minor alteration

C. major repair

D. major alteration

A. minor repair

14. A simple beam 10 m long carries a concentrated load of 200KN at the midspan. What is the maximum moment on the beam?

A. 250KN-m

B. 500KN-m

C. 5000KN-m

D. 2500KN-m

B. 500KN-m

15. It is a structure composed of slender members joined together at their end points, in which the members are subjected to only axial loads.

A. Beam Structures

B. Truss Structures

C. Monocoque Structures

D. Semi-monocoque Structures

B. Truss Structures

16. To obtain useful weight data for purposes of determining the CG, it is necessary that an aircraft be weighed

A. with all items of useful load installed.

B. With aircraft against the wind.

C. in a level flight altitude.

D. with no more than minimum fuel (1/12 - gallon per METO horsepower) in fuel tanks.

C. in a level flight altitude.

17. The primary reason for careful inspection and prompt repairing of minor surface defects such as scratches, nicks, gouges, etc. on aluminum alloy propellers is to prevent

A. unbalanced aerodynamics

B. beautiful appearance

C. fatigue failure

D. corrosion

C. fatigue failure

18. It is the strongest special fasteners used in aircraft construction

A. CHERRYBUCKS

B. TAPER-LOK

C. JO-BOLTS

D. HI-TIGUE

B. TAPER-LOK

19. What is the rivet head of an AN422 rivet?

A. round head

B. flat head

C. brazier head

D. universal head

B. flat head

20. It has high structural strength which retains to high temperature. It is used in turbine engine and for aircraft skin in areas where the temperature is high.

A. copper

B. aluminum

C. titanium

D. chromium

C. titanium

21. The rivet is backed up by a metal bar that reciprocates in response to the beats of the rivet gun. This metal bar is known as?

A. buck bar

B. buckling bar

C. bucking bar

D. backing bar

C. bucking bar

22. Aramid fiber also known as?

A. micro fiber

B. Kevlar

C. glass fiber

D. carbon fiber

B. Kevlar

23. Punctures, penetrations or cutouts that breach the complete thickness of the material and is fully surrounded by undamaged material.

A. Holes

B. Gouge

C. Abrasion

D. Nicks

A. Holes

24. The types of fire extinguishing agents for aircraft interior fires are.

A. water, carbon tetrachloride, carbon dioxide, and chlorobromomethane

B. water dry chemical, methyl bromide, and chlorobro momethane

C. water, carbon dioxide, dry chemical,and halogenated hydrocarbons

D. water, carbon tetrachloride, carbon dioxide, and dry chemical

C. water, carbon dioxide, dry chemical,and halogenated hydrocarbons

25. What type of steel is best suited for case hardening?

A. High carbon, high alloy

B. Low-carbon, high alloy

C. High carbon, low alloy

D. Low-carbon, low alloy

D. Low-carbon, low alloy

26. Which fiber to resin (percent) ratio for advance composite wet lay-ups is generally considered the best for strength?

A. 50:50

B. 40:60

C. 60:40

D. 70:30

C. 60:40

27. Determine the dimensions of A, B, and C in the flat layout.

A. A = 1.252, B = 1.752, C = 2.504

B. A = .748, B = 2.252, C = 2.004

C. A = .748, B = 1.496, C = 1.248

D. A = 1.252, B = 2.504, C = 1.752

C. A = .748, B = 1.496, C = 1.248

28. Magnetic particle inspection is somewhat unreliable for distinguishing or detecting

A. Cold sheets

B. Laps and fatigue cracks

C. Hairline discontinuities

D. Discontinuities which are below surface

D. Discontinuities which are below surface

29. Alodizing is a chemical treatment for aluminum alloys to improve their paint-bonding qualities and to:

A. Relieve their surface stresses

B. Increase their corrosion resistance

C. Make their surface slightly alkaline

D. Decrease their corrosion resistance

B. Increase their corrosion resistance

30. Alloy 2024 rivets should be driven within 10 minutes after they have been quenched, otherwise, before being used, they must be:

A. Reheat treated

B. Refrigerated

C. Normalized

D. Aged

A. Reheat treated

31. Neoprene grommet is used as

A. Tubing protection

B. Cover

C. Strengthens hole

D. Prevent oil leaks

A. Tubing protection

32. Differential control on an aileron system means that

A. The down travel is more than the up travel.

B. The down travel is equal to up travel

C. The up travel is more than the down travel.

D. One aileron on one wing travels further up than the aileron on the opposite wing to adjust for wash in and wash out.

C. The up travel is more than the down travel.

33. What is one check for proper operation of a pitot/static tube heater after replacement?

A. Continuity check of system.

B. Resistance reading.

C. Ammeter reading.

D. Voltmeter reading.

C. Ammeter reading.

34. What controls the inflation sequence in a pneumatic deicerboot system?

A. Vacuum pump.

B. Distributor valve.

C. Check valve

D. Shuttle valve.

B. Distributor valve.

35. What is the source of pressure for inflating deicer boots on reciprocating engine aircraft?

A. Gear type pump.

B. Planetary type pump.

C. Vane type pump.

D. Piston type pump.

C. Vane type pump.

36. Using the chart, determine the temperature range for a fire-extinguishing agent storage container with a pressure of 330 PSIG. (Consider 330 PSIG for both minimum and maximum pressure.)

A. 47 to 71°F

B. 47 to 72°F

C. 45 to 73°F.

D. 47 to 73°F.

C. 45 to 73°F.

37. What method is usually employed to control the temperature of an anti icing system using surface combustion heaters?

A. Thermostats in the cargo

B. Heater fuel shutoff valves.

C. Thermostats in the cockpit.

D. Thermo cycling switches.

D. Thermo cycling switches.

38. Why are the tubes in deicer boots alternately inflated?

A. Alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes does not disturb airflow.

B. Alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes relieves the load on the air pump.

C. Alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes keeps disturbance of the airflow to a minimum.

D. parallel inflation of deicer boot tubes relieves the load on the air pump.

C. Alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes keeps disturbance of the airflow to a minimum.

39. What is used to slow the drying time of some finishes and to prevent blush?

A. Blower

B. Retarder

C. Reducer

D. Rejuvenator

B. Retarder

40. Which type of coating typically includes phosphoric acid as one of its components at the time of application?

A. Zinc chromate primer.

B. Wash primer.

C. Epoxy primer.

D. Paint primer

B. Wash primer.

41. Which properly applied finish topcoat is the most durable and chemical resistant?

A. Acrylic lacquer.

B. enamel

C. Polyurethane.

D. Synthetic enamel.

C. Polyurethane.

42. Which of the following is a hazard associated with sanding on fabric covered surfaces during the finishing process?

A. Static electricity buildup.

B. Embedding of particles in the finish.

C. Dynamic electricity buildup

D. Overheating of the fabric/finish, especially with theuse of power tools.

A. Static electricity buildup.

43. What is likely to occur if unhydrated wash primer is applied to unpainted aluminum and then about 30 to 40 minutes later a finish topcoat, when the humidity is low?

A. A glossy, blush-free finish.

B. Corrosion

C. A glossy, blush finish

D. A dull finish due to the topcoat "sinking in" toprimer that is still too soft.

B. Corrosion

44. Fungicidal dopes are used in aircraft finishing as the

A. first, full-bodied, brushed-on coat to prevent fungusdamage.

B. first coat to prevent fabric rotting and are appliedthin enough to saturate the fabric.

C. first coat to prevent fabric blushing and are appliedthin enough to saturate the fabric.

D. final, full-bodied, brushed-on coat to reduce blushing.

B. first coat to prevent fabric rotting and are appliedthin enough to saturate the fabric.

45. Before spraying any finishing materials on unpainted clean aluminum,

A. avoid touching the surface with bare hands.

B. remove any conversion coating film.

C. wipe the surface with avgas or kerosene.

D. Remove any coating film

A. avoid touching the surface with bare hands.

46. What is likely to occur if hydrated wash primer is applied to unpainted aluminum and then about 30 to 40 minutes later a finish topcoat, when the humidity is low?

A. A dull finish due to the topcoat "sinking in" to primerthat is still too soft.

B. blushing

C. A glossy, blush-free finish.

D. Corrosion.

C. A glossy, blush-free finish.

47. Unless otherwise specified, torque values for tighten¬ing aircraft nuts and bolts relate to

A. clean, dry threads.

B. either dry or lightly oiled threads.

C. Dry threads

D. clean, lightly oiled threads.

A. clean, dry threads.

48. Unless otherwise specified or required, aircraft boltsshould be installed so that the bolthead is

A. downward, or in a forward direction.

B. Downward, or sideward direction

C. downward, or in a rearward direction.

D. upward, or in a forward direction.

D. upward, or in a forward direction.

49. One of the main advantages of Hi-Lok type fasteners over earlier generations is that

A. they can be removed and reused again.

B. They can't be installed with ordinary hand tools

C. the squeezed on collar installation provides a moresecure, tighter fit.

D. they can be installed with ordinary hand tools.

D. they can be installed with ordinary hand tools.

50. Which part(s) of a semi monocoque fuselage prevent(s) tension and compression from bending the fuselage?

A. Longerons and stringers.

B. Bulkheads and skin.

C. The fuselage covering

D. Bulkheads and fuselage

A. Longerons and stringers.