VM140 SA Nursing Exam 1 Review

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Last updated 11:46 PM on 10/6/26
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72 Terms

1
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Which of the following is a disadvantage of a modified-live vaccine?

The vaccine can cause disease in the animal

2
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T/F: Most owners are not capable of restraining their own pets

True

3
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T/F: A frightened/threatened cat will often show piloerection and flatten its ears against its head

True

4
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Which type of muzzles is most commonly used in dogs?

Nylon

5
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What type of reinforcement is this?:

You are teaching your dog to sit; when he sits on command, you give him a treat

positive reinforcement

6
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What type of reinforcement is this?:

You're training your dog to not bark when you get her leash; when you do, she barks, so you put the leash back and leave

Negative punishment

7
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Which is NOT information included in the pets signalment

color

8
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paraphrasing what the client has said to you while taking the history is important because?

it helps determine whether you understood the answers the client gave

9
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a feline has the following vitals: HR 140bpm; temps 101.5F; RR 32bpm, what is the vital abnormality?

HR (bradycardia)

10
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Which is considered a CORE canine vaccine?

Distemper

11
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elective surgery is defined as what?

Any surgery performed on a healthy patients at a convenient time

12
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when a tourniquet is used for an onychectomy, it should be placed _____to the elbow to prevent radial nerve damage.

distal

13
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T/F: if both an ointment and a solution need to be applied to the same eye, the solution should be applied first.

True

14
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which is the least commonly used for IM injection site?

triceps brachii

15
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T/F: If toenails are not regularly trimmed, the "quick" will recede more into the claw than that of regularly trimmed nails

False

16
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Which of the following is a disease of the inner ear?

deafness

17
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What are the three types of restraint?

Psychological, physical, chemical

18
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Psychological restraint methods

move slowly, speak slowly, avoid quick movements, dogs can sense fear

19
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chemical restraint methods

sedation/anesthesia

20
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Physical restraint methods

be firm, but avoid over restraint, determined by individual or procedure

21
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Normal heart rate: canine

80-140bpm

22
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Normal heart rate: felines

160-220bpm

23
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Normal respiratory rate: canine

12-40 bpm

24
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Normal respiratory rate: feline

20-40 bpm

25
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T/F: When restraining a dog or a cat, you should use the minimal amount of restraint necessary to prevent injury and facilitate examination.

True

26
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T/F:Scruffing is a routine and acceptable form of cat restraint because it calms the pet.

False

27
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T/F: Notating "physical exam was normal" in an animal's medical record is sufficient so long as all body systems are normal.

False

28
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As you are examining Rufus the dog, you obtain the following temperature, pulse, and respirations: Temp- 103 F, Pulse- 120 bpm, Respirations- 30 bpm. Based on the normal vital parameters ranges, what is your assessment?

Abnormal temp, normal pulse, normal respirations

29
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A happy/relaxed dog will have the following body language-

Head up, ears up or down, loose corners of the mouth

30
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A fearful/submissive dog will have the following body language-

Head down, ears pinned back, indirect eye contact

31
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Which of the following is NOT included when examining a dog/cat thorax?

Palpate the thoracic limbs

32
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When examining a dog/cat abdomen, you should palpate in what direction?

Cranial-to-caudal

33
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Which of the following statements about wellness care is FALSE?

A wellness exam should only focus on vaccination recommendations

34
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Core feline vaccines include

calicivirus, panleukopenia, FVRCP and rabies

35
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Core canine vaccines include

adenovirus (hepatitis), distemper, parvovirus, leptospirosis, and rabies.

36
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T/F: The ultimate goal of vaccines is to stimulate an active immune response

True

37
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Why do puppies and kittens receive vaccines in a series?

To minimize the chance of colostral immunoglobulins interfering with the vaccine

38
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Vaccines for dogs and cats are split into core and non-core. All of the following are general criteria that we should consider when selecting the appropriate vaccines to administer to a dog or cat EXCEPT?

Lifestyle of the owner

39
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All of the following can be a cause of vaccine failure EXCEPT?

Paternal immunity

40
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Which of the following is NOT a common type of restraint used in dogs and cats?

Compliant

41
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Which of the following is an advantage of a killed vaccine?

The vaccine cannot infect the animal

42
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Which of the following is a disadvantage of a killed vaccine?

The vaccine won't produce a strong immune response

43
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Which of the following is an advantage of a modified-live vaccine?

Stimulate immunity in a natural way

44
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As you are obtaining a history on Fluffy the cat, you need to ask the owner about her drinking habits. All of the following are examples of non-leading questions EXCEPT?

Is Fluffy drinking more water than usual?

45
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Which of the following procedures can be performed in a dog that is restrained in sternal recumbency?

Jugular venipuncture

46
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Which of the following procedures can be performed in a cat that is restrained in lateral recumbency?

Saphenous venipuncture

47
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If we are unable to determine the integrity of the tympanic membrane, what can be safely used to flush/clean an animal's ear?

Sterile saline

48
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What are the 2 classic signs of anal sac impaction?

Licking and scooting

49
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Onychectomy

surgical removal of the claws

50
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Laparotomy

surgical incision into the abdomen

51
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Gastrotomy

surgical incision into the stomach

52
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Enterotomy

surgical incision into the intestines

53
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Orchidectomy

surgical removal of the testicles

54
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Cryptorchidism

surgical incision of the scrotum to remove an undescended testicle

55
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Ovariohysterectomy

surgical removal of the uterus and ovaries

56
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Cystotomy

surgical incision into the bladder

57
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Regarding tail docking in puppies, what is the ideal age and is general anesthesia required?

3-5 days, no general anesthesia required or use of local anesthetic

58
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Which of the following is the correct description of applying a dip to a dog or cat?

Bathe, apply dip, do not rinse, air dry

59
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Prior to injecting into the muscle, it's important to?

Aspirate to ensure you're not in a vessel

60
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Prior to injecting into the SQ space, it's important to?

Aspirate to ensure you're not in a vessel

61
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T/F: When it comes to canine toenail trims, the claws on the front feet are often shorter and require less frequent trimming than those on the rear feet.

False

62
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T/F: When it comes to feline toenail trims, they have retractile claws so you need to gently squeeze the toe between thumb and forefinger to expose the claw.

True

63
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T/F: When administering topical ophthalmic medications to a pet, they should be administered at room temperature.

True

64
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Why do we generally try to avoid spaying a dog or cat when they are in estrus?

Risk of hemorrhage

65
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Which of the following is NOT a common IV injection site for medication administration?

Pedal

66
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Why should we always aspirate the syringe prior to giving an IV injection to an animal?

To ensure we get blood back

67
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If a pet requires multiple topical ophthalmic medications, they should be administered _____ minute(s) apart?

3-5 minutes

68
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When administering a SQ injection medication, what is the most ideal site of administration?

Over the shoulders

69
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When you are cleaning an animal's ears, where in the ear is it safe to use a cotton-tipped swab?

Pinna and external ear canal

70
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When examining a stained ear cytology slide, what shape does yeast look like?

Peanut

71
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Which of the following is a disorder of the external ear canal?

Otitis externa

72
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Which of the following is a disorder of the middle ear?

Otitis media