Data Security and Privacy: CIA, API Authorization, Cloud Access, and Governance

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80 Terms

1
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Records are stolen, pages are changed, and the service is forced into maintenance. Map the CIA impacts.

Theft → confidentiality; page changes → integrity; maintenance disruption → availability.

2
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An authorized employee accidentally deletes registration records and prevents enrollment. Which CIA goals are affected?

Integrity and availability.

3
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What should a university determine first before building a student-support prediction system?

The necessary data and its lifecycle.

4
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Who should receive academic-risk scores: instructors, advisors, housing staff, or a vendor?

First determine who needs the score for the student-support purpose.

5
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What must be established before a fitness app continuously collects precise location?

The purpose and necessary scope of collection.

6
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What does encryption leave unresolved in a student-analytics system?

Whether the collection and intended uses are appropriate.

7
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Detailed location histories remain after the service no longer needs them. What is the best response?

Define and apply a justified retention and disposal schedule.

8
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A university and vendor retain identifiable survey data indefinitely; only the university copy is deleted. What is the fix?

Govern sharing, retention, and deletion at both locations.

9
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An attacker reads patient records without changing them or causing an outage. What kind of failure is this?

A confidentiality failure that may also produce privacy harm.

10
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Approved analysts want to infer counseling attendance from encrypted student-location data. What comes first?

First determine whether the inference is necessary for the stated purpose.

11
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Which database actions deserve focused audit coverage?

Privilege changes, bulk exports, sensitive reads, and administrative changes.

12
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What is a limitation of encrypting a field used for exact-match search and sorting?

Encryption can disrupt indexing, comparison, and query behavior.

13
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Why design useful database logs before deployment?

To detect abuse or misuse early enough to respond.

14
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An application concatenates a user-supplied surname into SQL. What fixes the problem?

Use parameterized queries and separate query structure from data.

15
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A signed download URL is valid for 30 days and can be forwarded. How can exposure be limited?

Use short expiration, narrow object scope, and issue it only after authorization.

16
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Real-time replicas immediately copy a bad update. What additional capability is needed?

Tested point-in-time recovery or protected backups.

17
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Researchers should see only rows for assigned studies. What directly enforces this in the database?

Row-level security using authenticated project context.

18
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A database has API, reporting, administration, and backup access. What should a review do first?

Map each access path, identity, operation, and data boundary.

19
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A team wants stronger separation from its cloud provider and accepts more operational work. What fits?

Customer-managed or application-side encryption with controlled keys.

20
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Deleting a database row leaves indexes, caches, exports, replicas, and backups unchanged. What is wrong?

Retention and deletion were not designed across every copy.

21
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A valid researcher Bearer token is used to delete another project's file. What check is required?

Authorization for that action on that specific object.

22
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A researcher can view data but receives 403 from /admin/export. Which layer is enforced?

Function-level authorization.

23
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A researcher can view a record but receives unauthorized birth-date and internal-note fields. What is this flaw?

Broken Object Property Level Authorization (BOPLA).

24
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An attacker compromises a developer machine inside a private subnet. What is still required?

Identity, authorization, and scope checks at each service boundary.

25
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What prevents an API user from changing their role to admin?

Check that the property change is allowed for that caller and object.

26
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Which OAuth entity issues the access token after consent and scope approval?

The authorization server.

27
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A client may upload recordings but must never read or delete them. How is this enforced?

Grant upload:recordings scope and reject operations outside it.

28
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Which security decisions protect a batch upload across the full request path?

Protect transport → validate the token → authorize the object → enforce scoped storage permissions.

29
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An endpoint repeatedly runs expensive queries lasting over 30 seconds. What protects availability?

Per-identity rate limits, query-complexity limits, and execution timeouts.

30
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What best governs a third-party analytics data-sharing path?

Minimize transmitted data, set timeouts, and review vendor storage and deletion.

31
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Who is primarily accountable for deciding how participant contact information may be used?

The data owner who defines business use and access boundaries.

32
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A researcher can read the whole database but only needs one active clinical trial. What should be done?

Remove read access outside the specific project scope.

33
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Application logs contain request bodies with credit card numbers. What immediate change is needed?

Mask or exclude sensitive secrets and unnecessary personal data.

34
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How should repeated login-denial alerts become an operational response?

Define a threshold, assign an owner, and trigger a block or investigation.

35
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What design supports a safe, auditable reset of a compromised service-account password?

A separate administrator identity with strong authentication and limited duration.

36
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What should an access review compare?

Identity, role, resource access, and last use date.

37
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Bulk-export logs omit the project identifier and approving identity. What cannot be reliably determined?

Who approved the export and which project's data left.

38
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A researcher moves from a public-health project to a financial-records project. What happens to old access?

Remove access to the previous dataset before granting new access.

39
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What constitutes proper offboarding when an employee leaves?

Disable the account, revoke active sessions, and transfer data ownership.

40
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A researcher retains access to databases from two former projects. What is this called?

Privilege creep.

41
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Development, test, and production share one cloud account. What is the primary risk?

One compromised identity can reach production resources.

42
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A catalog masks diagnosis values, but analysts can read the underlying bucket files. What is the problem?

They can read unmasked diagnoses directly from the files.

43
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An engineer changes production network rules without updating the approved template. What is this?

Configuration drift.

44
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One application customer sees another customer's records while cloud-account isolation works. Where is the flaw?

Most likely in application authorization checks.

45
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A batch job stores a developer's SSH key in its configuration. What is the best replacement?

A workload identity with short-lived credentials.

46
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A managed database is highly available, but deleted records must be restored within four hours. What is needed?

Back up the data and test restores regularly.

47
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An analytics job reads two datasets but has administrator access to every bucket. What is the fix?

Limit the role to read access on the two datasets.

48
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What does the provider's SOC 2 Type II report establish about the customer's workload configuration?

It does not establish that the customer's workloads are configured correctly.

49
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Control-plane logs show a bucket became public. What reveals subsequent file downloads?

Data-plane access logs for the bucket.

50
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A public traffic table is joined with Confidential student health visits. Classify the result.

Confidential.

51
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Why can an employer name identify someone in a small town but not a large city?

Population size and available outside information.

52
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A release has ZIP, DOB, and Sex; an outside table has Name, ZIP, and DOB. Model the attack.

Join on ZIP and DOB.

53
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What acted as quasi-identifiers in the AOL search-log release?

The search queries themselves.

54
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Why could Netflix ratings with substituted IDs be linked to public review profiles?

The distinctiveness of each user's ratings.

55
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How is date of birth classified in a dataset containing names, SSNs, and birth dates?

A quasi-identifier.

56
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An attacker knows an email address that was replaced with a deterministic hash. Why can linkage work?

The attacker can hash the known email and compare.

57
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[Clinic table; quasi-identifiers = ZIP, Age, Sex. Rows: 1) 90840,20,F,asthma; 2) 90840,20,F,migraine; 3) 90840,20,M,asthma; 4) 90840,21,F,depression; 5) 90815,20,F,asthma; 6) 90815,20,F,diabetes; 7) 90815,20,F,migraine; 8) 90815,22,M,Fabry disease] How many rows are unique on ZIP, Age, and Sex?

3 rows: rows 3, 4, and 8.

58
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[Same clinic table] A neighbor knows a 20-year-old woman from ZIP 90815 is in the table. How many rows must the neighbor choose among?

3 rows: rows 5, 6, and 7.

59
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[Same clinic table] About 40 women aged 21 live in ZIP 90840, few are clinic patients. Is row 4 unique in the sample or the population?

Unique only in the sample.

60
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[Same clinic table] Only one person in the county has Fabry disease. What does this show?

A rare sensitive value can also identify a person.

61
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A server follows the protocol but examines received updates to learn about students. What adversary is this?

An honest-but-curious server.

62
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Honest clients contribute weighted total +4 from 100 examples. Five fake phones each claim 20 examples and submit clipped update +1.0. What is the average update?

+0.52.

63
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An analyst estimates whether many training examples came from international students; nationality is not a model label. What attack is this?

Property inference.

64
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Which control most directly slows extraction of a model exposed through an API?

Query limits and label-only outputs.

65
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Phone A has 30 examples and update +0.2; Phone B has 70 and update −0.1. What is the weighted average?

−0.01.

66
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A record receives confidence 0.97; training records average 0.95 and unseen records 0.70. An attacker infers it was in training. What attack?

Membership inference.

67
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[Hospital model trained with federated learning, queryable via API] An attacker sends many queries to copy the model's behavior. What attack is this?

Model extraction.

68
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[Hospital federated model with API] An attacker uses outputs to infer typical features of patients with one diagnosis. What attack is this?

Model inversion.

69
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[Hospital federated model with API] A client's model works normally except on one trigger that the attacker chose. What is this?

A backdoor.

70
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[Hospital federated model with API] What is a control for attacks through the query API?

Limits on queries.

71
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The parties cannot remain online for message exchanges. Which HE versus MPC difference matters?

HE evaluation is noninteractive; MPC usually requires communication.

72
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What does HE hide from an outside observer during evaluation?

The plaintext values.

73
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Two banks want customers appearing on both fraud lists without revealing either full list. What technique?

Private set intersection.

74
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Participants follow the protocol exactly but examine every received message. Which adversary model?

The semi-honest adversary model.

75
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Which method reveals common elements, or only how many elements are shared?

Private set intersection.

76
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An additively homomorphic scheme combines encryptions of 5 and 3. What does the result decrypt to?

8.

77
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[Three parties use MPC to compute the sum of their private counts; result goes to all three] What is the ideal benchmark for a secure MPC computation?

An ideal trusted party.

78
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[3-party MPC sum] Before output release, two parties combine two shares of an input under 3-of-3 additive sharing. What do they learn about the third input?

Those two shares reveal nothing about the third input by themselves.

79
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[3-party MPC] Why are comparisons slower than additions on shares in the quiz's MPC setting?

They need rounds of messages.

80
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[MPC] An aggregate over only two employers lets each recover the other's salary. Best listed control?

A minimum group size.