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A $1,000 par bond has a 6% annual coupon rate and pays interest semiannually. What cash coupon does the investor receive every six months? A. $120 | B. $6 | C. $30 | D. $60
C. $30 Explanation: Annual coupon interest is 0.06 x $1,000 = $60. Each of two semiannual payments is $60/2 = $30.
A. Annual coupon interest / current market price Explanation: Current yield measures coupon income relative to the current price. It excludes capital gains or losses and differs from the coupon rate, which uses par value.
C. 8.36% Explanation: C = $82.50. Discounting four coupons and $1,000 at 8.64% gives P = $987.2646. Current yield = $82.50/$987.2646 = 8.3564%, or 8.36%.
D. It falls. Explanation: A higher discount rate reduces the present value of the same future coupons and principal. Bond prices and yields move inversely.
C. $1,075.82 Explanation: P = 120[1 - (1.10)^(-5)]/0.10 + 1,000/(1.10)^5 = $1,075.8157. The coupon rate exceeds the YTM, so it trades at a premium.
A. 8.00% Explanation: The initial price is $1,092.4576; the ex-coupon sale price with five years left is $1,079.8542. HPR = (100 + 1,079.8542 - 1,092.4576)/1,092.4576 = 8.00%.
D. Shorter maturity and higher coupon rate Explanation: A shorter maturity moves cash flows closer to the present, and a higher coupon returns more cash earlier. A lower YTM instead increases price sensitivity, other things equal.
B. $747.26 Explanation: A zero-coupon bond has one maturity payment: P = $1,000/(1.06)^5 = $747.2582, or $747.26.
C. N = 10; PMT = $30; periodic rate = 3.5% Explanation: With semiannual payments, double the years, halve the annual coupon dollars, and halve the quoted nominal annual yield: N = 10, PMT = $30, r = 3.5%.
D. $958.42 Explanation: P = 30[1 - (1.035)^(-10)]/0.035 + 1,000/(1.035)^10 = $958.41697. Use ten periods and a 3.5% periodic yield.
B. Coupon rate > YTM Explanation: A premium bond pays a coupon rate above the return currently required by the market. Discounting its payments at the lower YTM produces a price above par.
D. 8.63% and 8.34% Explanation: Solving 958.73 = 80[1 - (1+y)^(-10)]/y + 1,000/(1+y)^10 gives y = 8.6327%. Current yield = 80/958.73 = 8.3444%.
A. $1,121.25 and 8.47% Explanation: Price = 1.12125 x $1,000 = $1,121.25. Annual coupons total $95, so current yield = 95/1,121.25 = 8.4727%. Semiannual payments do not halve annual current yield.
B. 8.16% Explanation: The six-month yield is 4%. Effective annual yield = (1 + 0.08/2)^2 - 1 = 0.0816 = 8.16%.
A. -0.6 percentage point; an inverted spread Explanation: The spread is 3.8% - 4.4% = -0.6 percentage point, or -60 basis points. The longer maturity yielding less than the shorter maturity indicates inversion over those maturities.
D. BBB Explanation: BBB is the lowest investment-grade category; BB is speculative grade. Credit ratings assess default risk rather than guaranteeing protection from interest rate changes.
B. The spread widens and the price falls. Explanation: Greater default risk normally raises the yield premium investors demand over Treasuries. The higher required yield reduces the present value and market price of unchanged promised payments.
D. An inverse floater Explanation: The inverse floater reverses the usual floating-rate relationship: its coupon moves inversely with the reference rate. Zero-coupon bonds have no periodic coupon.
A. 5.83% Explanation: Use (1 + nominal) = (1 + real)(1 + inflation). Real return = 1.09/1.03 - 1 = 5.8252%, or 5.83%. Subtracting 3% from 9% gives only an approximation.
B. Discount nominal cash flows at a nominal rate. Explanation: Match cash-flow units and discount-rate units. Nominal cash flows require a nominal rate; equivalently, consistently measured real cash flows require a real rate.
C. 1.91 years Explanation: D = [1(100/1.10) + 2(1,100/1.10^2)]/1,000 = 1.90909 years. Weight each payment time by that payment's share of the bond's present value.
B. -2.86% Explanation: Dmod = 6/1.05 = 5.714286 years. Delta P/P approximately equals -Dmod x delta y = -5.714286 x 0.005 = -0.028571, or -2.86%.
A. Exactly eight years Explanation: All of the present-value weight is on the single payment eight years from now, so its Macaulay duration equals its remaining maturity.
B. -4.80% Explanation: The duration term is -5 x 0.01 = -0.05. The convexity correction is 0.5 x 40 x 0.01^2 = +0.002. The total is -0.048, or -4.80%.
B. Match the present values and durations of assets and the obligation. Explanation: Begin with assets sufficient in present value to fund the obligation, then match duration to balance price and reinvestment effects near the horizon. This is a local approximation and requires monitoring.
D. Asset and liability durations change with time and yields. Explanation: Time passes, coupons are paid, and yields change; the asset portfolio's duration and the obligation's duration need not move identically. Rebalance to restore the intended match.
B. Asset values can fall while withdrawals force sales at depressed prices. Explanation: Long-duration securities lose market value when rates rise. Short-term deposit withdrawals can force liquidation, turning market-value losses into realized losses and intensifying a liquidity problem.
C. 18.52% Explanation: With 14 years left, P1 = 80[1 - (1.07)^(-14)]/0.07 + 1,000/(1.07)^14 = $1,087.4547. HPR = (80 + 1,087.4547 - 985)/985 = 18.5233%, or 18.52%.
D. 9.14 years Explanation: Use PMT = $31.25 and periodic yield = 3.5%. Solve 950 = 31.25[1 - (1.035)^(-N)]/0.035 + 1,000/(1.035)^N to obtain N = 18.27275 six-month periods, or 9.13637 years.
B. Lower bond prices and higher reinvestment rates Explanation: Rising yields reduce the market value of existing fixed cash flows, creating price risk, while allowing coupons to be reinvested at higher rates. Duration immunization balances these offsetting effects near a target horizon.
D. The premium Explanation: The premium is the option price. The strike is the fixed price used when the option is exercised.
A. To buy the underlying at the strike on or before expiration Explanation: An American call permits the holder to buy the underlying at the strike on or before expiration. A put gives a right to sell.
A. It can be exercised only at expiration, although it may be sold before then if a market exists Explanation: European refers to exercise timing: exercise is allowed only at expiration. This does not require an investor to keep the option until expiration.
A. In the money; $5 Explanation: A call is in the money when S exceeds K. Its intrinsic value is max(50 - 45, 0) = $5 per share.
D. $0 Explanation: The put is out of the money and can expire unexercised. Its payoff is max(50 - 55, 0) = $0; the payoff is never negative for the holder.
C. $2 Explanation: Intrinsic value is $50 - $45 = $5. Extrinsic value is the $7 premium minus $5 intrinsic value = $2.
D. Payoff $8; profit $5 Explanation: Call payoff is max(48 - 40, 0) = $8. Profit subtracts the $3 premium, leaving $5 per share.
C. Unlimited as the stock price rises Explanation: A short call owes max(S_T - K, 0). With no offsetting stock position, the loss can grow without bound as the stock price rises.
C. $300 Explanation: A call buyer can let the option expire and loses at most the premium paid: $3 x 100 = $300.
B. $4,800 Explanation: The stock cannot fall below zero. At zero, payoff is $50 x 100 = $5,000, and profit is $5,000 - $200 premium = $4,800.
D. $48 Explanation: A long put breaks even at K - p = $50 - $2 = $48. Payoff then equals the premium.
C. -$5 Explanation: The short put owes $50 - $43 = $7 per share and keeps the $2 premium. Profit is $2 - $7 = -$5.
A. Long stock and short call Explanation: A covered call combines ownership of the underlying stock with writing a call on that stock.
A. $8 Explanation: Above $55, the stock gain is capped at $55 - $50 = $5. Adding the $3 call premium gives maximum profit of $8 per share.
D. $47 Explanation: The stock loses $50, but the call expires worthless and the writer keeps $3. Net loss is $50 - $3 = $47 per share.
C. $48 Explanation: The combined payoff is S_T + max(48 - S_T, 0) = max(S_T, 48). The put guarantees a $48 floor on terminal proceeds per share.
C. $4 Explanation: Total initial cost is $52, while the protective put guarantees at least $48 in terminal proceeds. Maximum loss is $52 - $48 = $4.
B. Buy a $50 call and sell a $60 call Explanation: A bull call spread buys the lower-strike call and sells the higher-strike call, producing a limited bullish payoff.
D. $6 Explanation: The net premium paid is $7 - $3 = $4. The maximum payoff is the $60 - $50 = $10 strike difference, so maximum profit is $10 - $4 = $6.
C. Vertical spread Explanation: A vertical spread uses different strikes and the same expiration. Calendar spreads vary expiration; diagonal spreads vary both.
A. A long straddle Explanation: A long straddle purchases both a call and a put with the same strike and expiration.
B. $52 and $68 Explanation: The total premium is $5 + $3 = $8. Breakevens are $60 - $8 = $52 and $60 + $8 = $68.
A. $7 Explanation: The call pays $75 - $60 = $15; the put pays zero. Subtract the total $8 premium to get $7 profit per share.
B. S_0 + P = C + PV(K) Explanation: A protective put (stock plus put) has the same terminal payoff as a call plus a risk-free investment that pays K. Equal payoffs imply equal current values.
C. $4 Explanation: PV(K) = $52/1.04 = $50. Therefore C = S_0 + P - PV(K) = $50 + $4 - $50 = $4 per share.
A. Long stock, long put, and borrow PV(K) Explanation: Rearranging C = S_0 + P - PV(K) gives long stock plus long put financed partly by borrowing PV(K), which requires repaying K at expiration.
D. The volatility level consistent with its market price in an option pricing model Explanation: Implied volatility is inferred from the observed option price using a pricing model. It is not a guaranteed realized volatility or return.
B. The 35% option because its price implies higher volatility Explanation: Higher implied volatility means a higher price in volatility terms. This comparison alone does not establish the higher-IV option is mispriced or guarantee equal dollar premiums.
C. A call on firm assets with a strike of $800 Explanation: Equity receives max(V_T - $800, 0), the payoff of a call on the firm's assets with strike equal to the promised debt payment.
A. Debt $600; equity $0 Explanation: Debt receives min(V_T, D) = min($600, $800) = $600. Equity receives max(V_T - D, 0) = $0. Debt is equivalent to firm assets minus the equity call.