gba/rpa 3 condensed

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101 Terms

1
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Must specific formalities be completed for an employee welfare plan to exist?

No. An ongoing employer commitment or administrative practice may establish the plan.

2
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What changes a short-term disability payroll practice into a regulated welfare plan?

Funding through insurance or paying more than an employee’s normal compensation.

3
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What four conditions are required for the voluntary-benefit safe harbor?

No employer contributions, voluntary participation, no prohibited employer consideration, and no endorsement.

4
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Who is the plan administrator if none is named in the plan document?

The plan sponsor, usually the employer.

5
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Who must be covered by an employee benefit plan fidelity bond?

Every person who handles plan funds.

6
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How often must a summary plan description be redistributed if material changes occurred?

At least every 5 years.

7
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How often must a summary plan description be redistributed without material changes?

At least every 10 years.

8
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What is the deadline for notice of a material reduction in health plan benefits?

Generally within 60 days after the change.

9
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What deadline triggers the potential daily penalty for failing to give requested plan documents?

30 days after a participant’s written request.

10
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When must a new participant generally receive an initial summary plan description?

Within 90 days after becoming covered; a newly established plan generally has 120 days after becoming subject to the law.

11
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What maximum daily document-disclosure penalty is quoted in the guide?

Up to $110 per day, with annual inflation adjustments noted by the guide.

12
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How long must supporting employee benefit plan records generally be kept?

At least 6 years after the related Form 5500 annual return is filed.

13
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Are employer-paid health coverage contributions generally taxable wages?

No. They are generally excluded from federal income, Social Security, Medicare, and unemployment taxes.

14
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When can employee-paid health insurance premiums be pretax?

When paid through a qualifying Section 125 cafeteria plan.

15
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What choice must a Section 125 cafeteria plan offer?

At least one taxable benefit, such as cash, and at least one qualified tax-free benefit.

16
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Can a Section 403(b) tax-sheltered annuity elective deferral be a cafeteria plan qualified benefit?

No. It is listed among the nonqualified benefits.

17
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Which part of employer-provided group-term life coverage is generally excluded from income?

The first $50,000 of coverage; excess coverage can produce imputed taxable income.

18
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How are employer-funded disability payments generally taxed?

The portion funded with employer contributions is generally taxable to the employee.

19
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How are disability payments funded by employee after-tax premiums generally taxed?

The portion funded by after-tax employee premiums is generally not taxable.

20
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At what age may a health savings account owner make catch-up contributions?

Age 55 or older, before Medicare enrollment.

21
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What happens to eligibility to contribute to a health savings account after Medicare enrollment?

Contributions are no longer permitted.

22
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What excise tax applies to excess health savings account contributions in the guide?

6%.

23
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May a health flexible spending account offer both carryover and a grace period?

No. The guide says the two options cannot be combined.

24
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What payroll tax treatment applies to employee pretax retirement elective deferrals?

Federal income tax is deferred, but Social Security and Medicare payroll taxes generally apply.

25
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What does an investment policy statement document?

Investment objectives, selection, measurement, monitoring, and review guidelines.

26
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Does the law expressly require an investment policy statement for every retirement plan?

No. It is a widely recommended governance best practice.

27
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How often should an investment committee generally meet under the guide's best practices?

Quarterly or twice a year, depending on the committee and plan needs.

28
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What does a service organization controls report focused on financial reporting assess?

Relevant controls at a service provider that may affect the plan's financial reporting.

29
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What is protected health information?

Health, care, or payment information protected under health privacy rules.

30
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What is an employer's basic responsibility when outsourcing sensitive benefits data?

Careful vendor selection, contractual safeguards, and ongoing monitoring.

31
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What should a privacy-sensitive service provider contract cover?

Data use, confidentiality, breach notice, security, subcontractors, compliance, and oversight rights.

32
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Which accounting standards topic applies to defined benefit pension plans?

Financial Accounting Standards Board Accounting Standards Codification Topic 960.

33
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Which accounting standards topic applies to defined contribution pension plans?

Financial Accounting Standards Board Accounting Standards Codification Topic 962.

34
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Which accounting standards topic applies to health and welfare benefit plans?

Financial Accounting Standards Board Accounting Standards Codification Topic 965.

35
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May a plan administrator demand to inspect an independent plan auditor's workpapers?

No. The administrator has no right to examine them, even to assess audit quality.

36
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What does an independent plan auditor provide?

An audit opinion based on reasonable—not absolute—assurance.

37
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What are the three conditions in the fraud triangle?

Pressure or incentive, opportunity, and rationalization.

38
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What share of plan audits had unacceptable-major deficiencies in the cited 2014 study?

Nearly 4 out of 10 audits.

39
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What percentage of deficient audits were by firms with clean peer reviews in the cited study?

48%.

40
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What did the Supreme Court decision in Tibble versus Edison emphasize?

The continuing fiduciary duty to monitor investments rather than only reviewing initial selection.

41
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What six-year issue can arise from failing to monitor investments?

A claim may be timely based on a failure to monitor within the six-year limitations period.

42
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Who often controls the retirement plan client relationship in the guide's advisor-administrator comparison?

The investment advisor.

43
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What is one basis point?

0.01 percentage point.

44
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What had the largest effect on retirement wealth in the savings simulations?

Consistently following a rigorous savings plan.

45
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What safeguards are needed for electronic plan recordkeeping?

Accuracy, authenticity, accessibility, and legible reproduction.

46
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What question does descriptive health analytics answer?

What happened?

47
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What question does predictive health analytics answer?

What may happen next?

48
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What question does prescriptive health analytics answer?

What should we do about it?

49
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What share of annual claims spending may be recoverable from administrative errors in the guide?

Often approximately 1% to 3%.

50
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What is a typical lookback period for a medical claims audit?

About 12 to 24 months.

51
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What shorter period can limit recovery of audited medical claims overpayments?

Provider contracts may limit recoveries to approximately 12 months.

52
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What should a strong health analytics vendor's visualization tools support?

Flexible, changeable displays; not permanently fixed visuals.

53
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What is the latest age a qualified longevity annuity contract may begin paying?

Age 85.

54
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What qualified longevity annuity contract premium maximum does the study guide give for 2022?

The lesser of $145,000 or 25% of eligible account value; the dollar limit is indexed.

55
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Is a qualified longevity annuity contract allowed to have a cash surrender value?

No. Cash surrender values are prohibited under the guide's stated requirements.

56
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How does a qualifying longevity annuity affect required minimum distribution calculations?

Its value can be excluded from the account balance used for those calculations.

57
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May a Roth individual retirement account hold a qualified longevity annuity contract under the guide?

No. The guide does not include Roth individual retirement accounts among eligible arrangements.

58
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What did the Setting Every Community Up for Retirement Enhancement Act help with?

Annuity insurer-selection fiduciary concerns and portability of certain retirement income products.

59
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What is the difference between Section 3(21) and Section 3(38) investment services?

Section 3(21) gives investment advice; Section 3(38) manages investments with discretion.

60
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What determines whether an investment decision met fiduciary prudence?

The reasonableness of investigation, selection, and monitoring—not the outcome alone.

61
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Does an innovative investment automatically require a formal investment policy statement by law?

No. A more detailed policy is recommended, but not expressly required.

62
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What is a collective investment trust?

A pooled investment fund maintained by a bank for eligible benefit plans.

63
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Can an oral severance arrangement potentially be a regulated welfare plan?

Yes, if its structure and ongoing administration satisfy plan requirements.

64
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What was the key contractual limitation principle in Heimeshoff?

A reasonable plan-specified claims limitation period can be enforced in certain benefit disputes.

65
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Why can a plan venue-selection provision be useful?

It may promote predictability by concentrating litigation under a more consistent body of case law.

66
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What is a defining feature of social insurance?

Compulsory coverage and income protection emphasizing social adequacy.

67
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Is full advance funding required for Social Security under the guide?

No. Full funding is not considered necessary for the continuing social insurance system.

68
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How many credits are generally required for fully insured Social Security retirement?

Generally 40 work credits, with special rules for younger workers.

69
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How does a worker qualify as currently insured for Social Security?

Earn at least 6 credits during the 13 calendar quarters ending with the relevant event.

70
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What is the earliest general age for Social Security retirement benefits?

Age 62, with a permanently reduced monthly benefit.

71
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What is full Social Security retirement age for workers born in 1960 or later?

Age 67.

72
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What is the primary insurance amount for Social Security retirement?

The worker’s monthly benefit at full retirement age—not average indexed monthly earnings.

73
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Why is the Social Security replacement rate higher for lower-income workers?

The weighted benefit formula replaces a larger percentage of lower lifetime earnings.

74
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How large are delayed retirement credits for those born in 1943 or later?

8% per year, prorated by month, until age 70.

75
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How does the retirement earnings test apply when below full retirement age throughout the year?

Benefits are generally reduced $1 for each $2 earned above the applicable threshold.

76
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Which income measure helps determine whether Social Security benefits are taxable?

Adjusted gross income, tax-exempt interest, and half of Social Security benefits.

77
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What is the maximum portion of Social Security benefits subject to federal income tax?

Up to 85% of benefits may be included in taxable income for higher-income recipients.

78
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Which child may qualify for survivor benefits after age 18?

An unmarried adult child whose qualifying disability began before age 22.

79
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How long is the standard waiting period for Social Security disability cash benefits?

5 months.

80
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How many extra weeks can basic extended unemployment benefits provide?

Up to 13 additional weeks in high-unemployment states.

81
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How does experience rating affect unemployment insurance employer taxes?

Employers with favorable employment records can qualify for lower unemployment tax rates.

82
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How many weeks of regular state unemployment benefits are typical?

Up to 26 weeks in most states, according to the study guide.

83
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When does the Medicare hospital benefit period end?

After 60 consecutive days without inpatient hospital or skilled nursing facility care.

84
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How many total Medicare inpatient hospital lifetime reserve days are available?

60 days over a beneficiary's lifetime.

85
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What is the general hospital stay needed before skilled nursing facility Part A coverage?

At least 3 qualifying inpatient hospital days.

86
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What is the usual admission window for covered skilled nursing care after discharge?

Generally within 30 days of the qualifying hospital stay.

87
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What is the maximum covered skilled nursing facility stay in a benefit period?

Up to 100 covered days, subject to program conditions.

88
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How are the first 20 covered skilled nursing facility days generally paid?

Medicare pays covered costs without daily coinsurance.

89
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Which skilled nursing facility days generally require daily coinsurance?

Days 21 through 100.

90
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What is required for Medicare hospice eligibility?

Generally a certification of terminal illness with life expectancy of 6 months or less.

91
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What is Medigap insurance used for?

Supplementing Original Medicare by paying certain charges not covered by Parts A and B.

92
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What do Medicare administrative contractors do?

Process and pay fee-for-service claims for Medicare Parts A and B in geographic jurisdictions.

93
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Which Medicare trust fund finances Part A?

The Hospital Insurance trust fund.

94
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Which Medicare trust fund finances Parts B and D?

The Supplementary Medical Insurance trust fund, with separate accounts for the two parts.

95
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What share of Medicare Part B costs do standard beneficiary premiums cover?

Approximately 25% on average, according to the study guide.

96
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What share of standard Medicare Part D costs do beneficiary premiums cover?

Approximately 25.5% on average, according to the study guide.

97
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What risk arises when transferring an employee directly to a foreign employer?

Loss of eligibility for home-country plans and continuing home-country social security coverage.

98
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What is tax equalization for expatriate employees?

The employer aims to leave the employee paying roughly the home-country tax amount.

99
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What does Internal Revenue Code Section 3121(l) accomplish?

It can extend United States Social Security coverage to eligible employees of foreign affiliates.

100
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What do bilateral Social Security totalization agreements do?

Help prevent dual contributions and coordinate benefit eligibility across countries.