gcsu psych exam 1

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Last updated 3:50 PM on 9/30/26
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234 Terms

1
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What is an example of the defense mechanism 'compensation'?

A physically disabled boy excels in academics to cover for his inability to participate in sports.

2
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What does the defense mechanism 'denial' involve?

Refusing to acknowledge the existence of a real situation or the feelings associated with it.

3
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What is 'displacement' in psychological terms?

Transferring feelings from one target to another that is considered less threatening.

4
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What is 'identification' as a defense mechanism?

Increasing self-worth by acquiring attributes of someone admired.

5
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What does 'intellectualization' mean?

Avoiding emotional expression by using logic and reasoning.

6
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What is 'introjection' in the context of defense mechanisms?

Integrating the beliefs and values of another individual into one's own ego structure.

7
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What is isolation in psychological terms?

Separating a thought or memory from the feeling, tone, or emotion associated with it.

8
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What is projection in psychology?

Attributing feelings or impulses unacceptable to one's self to another person.

9
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Define rationalization as a defense mechanism.

Attempting to make excuses or formulate logical reasons to justify unacceptable feelings or behaviors.

10
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What is reaction formation?

Preventing unacceptable thoughts or behaviors from being expressed by exaggerating opposite thoughts or behaviors.

11
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Explain regression in psychological terms.

Retreating in response to stress to an earlier level of development and the comfort measures associated with that level.

12
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What does repression mean in psychology?

Involuntarily blocking unpleasant feelings and experiences from one's awareness.

13
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What is sublimation?

Rechanneling of drives or impulses that are personally or socially unacceptable into constructive activities.

14
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Define suppression as a defense mechanism.

The voluntary blocking of unpleasant feelings and experiences from one's awareness.

15
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What is undoing in psychological terms?

Symbolically negating or canceling out an experience that one finds intolerable.

16
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What are the objectives of therapeutic communication?

Discuss the transactional model of communication, identify preexisting conditions influencing communication outcomes, and apply motivational interviewing.

17
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What are some goals of therapeutic communication?

Identify and explore problems in relating to others, discover healthy ways of meeting emotional needs, and experience satisfying interpersonal relationships.

18
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List some therapeutic communication techniques.

Using silence, accepting, giving recognition, offering self, and encouraging description of perceptions.

19
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What are nontherapeutic communication techniques?

Giving false reassurance, rejecting, approving or disapproving, and probing.

20
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What does the acronym SOLER stand for in active listening?

Sit squarely, Open posture, Lean forward, Eye contact, Relax.

21
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What is the purpose of motivational interviewing?

To help patients explore what they are willing to do rather than trying to change them directly.

22
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What does 'voicing doubt' mean in therapeutic communication?

Expressing uncertainty about the patient's perceptions or beliefs.

23
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What is the importance of active listening in therapeutic communication?

It fosters understanding and builds trust between the communicator and the recipient.

24
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How can one demonstrate therapeutic feedback?

By providing constructive responses that encourage further exploration of feelings and thoughts.

25
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What does 'encouraging comparison' involve in therapeutic communication?

Prompting the patient to compare their feelings or experiences to others to gain perspective.

26
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What are the 5 A's of motivational interviewing?

Ask, Advise, Assess, Assist, Arrange.

27
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What is the purpose of the 'Ask' step in motivational interviewing?

To inquire about alcohol use.

28
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What does the 'Advise' step in motivational interviewing entail?

Advising the patient to abstain from alcohol or to drink below normal limits.

29
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What is assessed during the 'Assess' step of motivational interviewing?

The patient's readiness to quit using a readiness ruler and stages of change framework.

30
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What is the role of the psychiatric nurse as a 'Stranger'?

To establish initial contact and rapport with the patient.

31
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What are the phases of the therapeutic nurse-patient relationship?

Preinteraction phase, Orientation phase, Working phase, Termination phase.

32
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What is the 'Working phase' in the therapeutic relationship?

The phase where the nurse and patient actively work towards goals and address issues.

33
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What is transference in a therapeutic relationship?

When a patient projects feelings about significant others onto the healthcare provider.

34
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How does the forebrain contribute to mental functions?

It is involved in thinking, decision making, and emotional regulation.

35
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What is the role of the thalamus in the brain?

It integrates sensory input (except smell) for the cortex and temporarily blocks minor sensory information.

36
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What functions does the hypothalamus regulate?

It regulates the pituitary gland, appetite, temperature, thirst, sleep, sex drive, and autonomic nervous system.

37
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What are the main functions of the cerebellum?

Coordination of voluntary movements, muscle tone, and maintenance of posture and equilibrium.

38
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What is the difference between afferent and efferent neurons?

Afferent neurons carry impulses to the CNS from the body, while efferent neurons carry impulses from the CNS to the body.

39
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What are neurotransmitters?

Chemical messengers that transmit signals across synapses between neurons.

40
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What is the function of cholinergic neurotransmitters?

They are involved in the autonomic nervous system and affect both sympathetic and parasympathetic functions.

41
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What is the role of the limbic system?

It is the emotional center of the brain, involved in feelings like fear, anger, love, and social behavior.

42
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What are the warning signs of impending boundary violations in a nurse-patient relationship?

Favoring one patient, keeping secrets, changing dress style, giving special attention, or spending free time with a patient.

43
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What is the purpose of the termination phase in the therapeutic relationship?

To conclude the relationship and address any emotional responses related to the end of care.

44
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What is the significance of rapport in the nurse-patient relationship?

It establishes trust and a positive connection, facilitating effective communication and care.

45
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What does the 'Assist' step in motivational interviewing involve?

Helping the patient with behavioral change principles.

46
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What is the role of the pons in the brain?

It connects the cerebellum and is involved in respiration and skeletal muscle tone.

47
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What are the primary functions of neurotransmitters?

Sleep, arousal, pain perception, movement, and memory.

48
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What are the implications of decreased norepinephrine levels?

Associated with depression.

49
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What are the implications of increased norepinephrine levels?

Linked to mania, anxiety states, and schizophrenia.

50
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Where is dopamine primarily located in the brain?

Frontal cortex, limbic system, basal ganglia, thalamus, posterior pituitary, and spinal cord.

51
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What are the functions of dopamine?

Movement and coordination, emotions, voluntary judgment, and release of prolactin.

52
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What are the implications of decreased dopamine levels?

Associated with Parkinson's disease and depression.

53
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What are the implications of increased dopamine levels?

Linked to mania and schizophrenia.

54
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What functions does serotonin regulate?

Sleep and arousal, libido, appetite, mood, aggression, pain perception, coordination, and judgment.

55
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What are the implications of decreased serotonin levels?

Associated with depression.

56
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What are the implications of increased serotonin levels?

Linked to anxiety states; certain serotonin subtypes can either increase or decrease anxiety.

57
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What is the primary function of histamine in the brain?

Regulates wakefulness, pain sensation, and inflammatory response.

58
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What are the implications of decreased histamine levels?

Associated with depression.

59
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What are the implications of increased histamine levels?

Linked to sleep disorders, anxiety, Alzheimer's disease, and psychosis.

60
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What is the function of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)?

Slowing of body activity.

61
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What are the implications of decreased GABA levels?

Associated with Huntington's disease, anxiety disorders, schizophrenia, and various forms of epilepsy.

62
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What is the function of glycine in the nervous system?

Recurrent inhibition of motor neurons.

63
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What are the implications of decreased glycine levels?

Correlated with spastic motor movements.

64
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What is the function of somatostatin?

Stimulates release of various neurotransmitters and acts as a neuromodulator.

65
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What are the implications of altered secretion of somatostatin?

Decreased levels are associated with Alzheimer's disease; increased levels with Huntington's disease.

66
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What are the indications for benzodiazepines?

Acute anxiety, alcohol withdrawal, and seizures.

67
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What is the primary indication for buspirone?

Chronic anxiety.

68
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What is the mechanism of action for benzodiazepines?

They cause CNS depression and increase GABA, leading to decreased excitation.

69
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How does buspirone's action differ from benzodiazepines?

Buspirone affects serotonin and dopamine and has a lag time of 7-10 days.

70
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What are monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) used for?

Depression, especially when other treatments have failed

71
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What do MAOIs block in the brain?

The breakdown of monoamines (serotonin, norepinephrine, dopamine)

72
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What foods should be avoided when taking MAOIs?

Tyramine foods like aged cheeses, red wines, and processed meats

73
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What is a significant risk associated with tricyclic antidepressants?

High potential for overdose and lethality

74
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What is the action of SSRIs?

Blocks the reuptake of serotonin

75
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What are some common side effects of antidepressants?

Risk for suicide, injury, social isolation, constipation, insomnia

76
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What are early signs of lithium toxicity?

Vomiting and diarrhea

77
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What are the indications for antipsychotics?

Schizophrenia, other psychotic disorders, sometimes bipolar disorder

78
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What is a common side effect of first-generation antipsychotics?

Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)

79
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What is the risk of using antipsychotics in older adults?

Increased risk of stroke and sudden death

80
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What is the action of atypical antidepressants like Wellbutrin?

Decreases reuptake of dopamine and norepinephrine

81
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What is the importance of tapering off antidepressants?

To prevent withdrawal syndromes and mood destabilization

82
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What are the symptoms of serotonin syndrome?

Seizures, confusion, and gastrointestinal disturbances

83
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What is the purpose of a safety plan for patients at risk for suicide?

To provide individualized strategies for safety and support

84
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What is anger?

An emotional state that varies in intensity from irritation to fury and rage, often arising from hurt, frustration, or fear.

85
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What physiological effects can result from unacknowledged anger?

Migraines, ulcers, colitis, coronary artery disease, depression, low self-esteem, and suicide.

86
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What is aggression?

Behavior intended to threaten or injure the victim's security or self-esteem, which can also be aimed at objects.

87
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What are some predisposing factors to anger and aggression?

Modeling, operant conditioning, neurophysiological factors, biochemical factors, socioeconomic factors, and environmental factors.

88
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What are some signs of anger in a person?

Frowning facial expression, clenched fists, low-pitched verbalization, yelling, intense eye contact or avoidance, and hypersensitivity.

89
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What nursing diagnoses are associated with anger management?

Ineffective coping, risk for self-directed violence, and risk for other-directed violence.

90
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What are the phases in the development of a crisis?

1. Exposure to a precipitating stressor, 2. Previous problem-solving techniques fail, 3. Resources are called on to resolve the problem, 4. Tension mounts to a breaking point.

91
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What characterizes a crisis?

A crisis is acute, personal, and can lead to psychological growth or deterioration, often precipitated by identifiable events.

92
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What are the types of crises?

1. Dispositional crises, 2. Crises of anticipated life transitions, 3. Crises resulting from traumatic stress, 4. Maturational/developmental crises, 5. Crises reflecting psychopathology, 6. Psychiatric emergencies.

93
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What is the focus of crisis intervention?

To gather information about the stressor, assess the individual's mental and physical status, and determine coping methods.

94
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What is the goal of crisis intervention?

Crisis resolution and a return to or increase in pre-crisis level of functioning.

95
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What are some interventions for managing a crisis?

Use a reality-oriented approach, establish a rapid working relationship, set firm limits on aggressive behaviors, and guide the individual through a problem-solving process.

96
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What is the role of the nurse in anger management?

To help the individual recognize anger, take responsibility for feelings, and demonstrate internal control over anger.

97
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What are some behaviors indicating aggression?

Pacing, threatening body language, verbal or physical threats, and destruction of property.

98
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How can anger be expressed in relationships?

Inappropriate expression can lead to poor relationship quality, while suppression can result in resentment and passive-aggressive behavior.

99
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What is the importance of recognizing anger in patients?

It allows for timely intervention and support, helping to prevent escalation and harm.

100
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What should be assessed regarding a person's coping mechanisms during a crisis?

The effectiveness of previous coping methods, the adequacy of support systems, and the individual's perception of personal strengths and limitations.