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tuberculosis
infection of the lungs via mycobacterium tuberculosis
how is TB transmitted?
via aerosolized droplets (infected person coughs, spits or sneezes on another person who inhales the droplets)
after an infection of TB, what can occur?
latent or active TB
latent TB
immune system is able to successfully contain the infection, but not eliminate it. Macrophages and T cells wall off the areas of infection in granulomas, thereby preventing the infection from spreading within the host or to another host (not contagious)
active TB
immune system is not able to contain the infection within granulomas and it spreads throughout the body; can result from primary infection not successfully contained by the immune system or reactivation of latent TB
extrapulmonary TB
a form of active TB in which the infection occurs in other areas of the body outside the lungs
risk factors for TB
- immunocompromised (HIV, AIDS, immunomodulating medications, transplant patients)
- health care workers
- bronchoscopy
- aerosolized treatments
- autopsy
- oben abscess irrigation
- endotracheal intubation or suctioning
- sputum induction
sign and symptoms of latent TB
asymptomatic
signs and symptoms of active TB
- fever
- night sweats
- weight loss
- hemoptysis
signs and symptoms of extrapulmonary TB
give where it is and name
- Pott's disease (TB of the vertebrae)
- scrofula (TB of cervical lymph node)
- miliary (systemic TB)
diagnostics for latent TB
- tuberculin skin test/ PPD
- interferon gamma release assay (quantiferon and T spot)
how is a tuberculin skin test performed
0.1ml of tuberculin purified protein derivative (PPD) is injected into the forearm and the diameter of induration is measured 48-72 hrs later:
interpretation of a tuberculin skin test (PPD) ≥ 5mm
TB positive for HIV+, organ transplant or other immunosuppressed pts, and pts with a recent exposure
interpretation of a tuberculin skin test (PPD) ≥ 10mm
TB positive for:
- recent immigrants from areas with high TB incidence
- health care workers
- homeless pts
- pts with hematologic or head/ neck malignancies, renal failure or diabetes
- injection drug users
interpretation of a tuberculin skin test (PPD) ≥ 15mm
TB positive for people with no known risk factors
how is a interferon gamma release assay (quantiferon and T spot) performed?
the T cells in a pt's blood sample are stimulated with TB specific peptides and the activity of the T cells is approximated by measuring interferon gamma
3 components of the interferon gamma release assay (quantiferon and T spot)
- nil (negative control)
- mitogen (positive control)
- TB
list the normal and abnormal values for the nil of an interferon gamma release assay
normal: < 8.0 IU/ml
abnormal: > 8 (indicates an underlying inflammatory/ immune condition that is causing a false positive)
list the normal and abnormal values for the mitogen of an interferon gamma release assay
normal: ≥ 0.5 IU/ml
abnormal: < 0.5 IU/ml (indicates an underlying condition that inhibits activation of T cells: HIV, immunosuppressant meds, leading to a false negative)
list the values of the TB portion of an interferon gamma release assay that indicates TB infection
≥ 0.35 IU/ml
testing for active TB
• Initial Screening: Sputum Acid-Fast Bacilli (AFB) smear x3 (8h apart, ≥1 early morning sample) and CXR/CT
• Definitive / Gold Standard: Sputum culture for M. tuberculosis (2–6 weeks; gold standard for drug susceptibility) OR NAAT / PCR (results in hours to 2 days)
• CXR Findings: Primary = ill-defined consolidation, hilar lymphadenopathy, pleural effusion (30–40%); Reactivation = apical fibrocavitary lesions
____
sputum or bronchial lavage or biopsy
acid fast bacilli (AFB) stain: typically 3 smears are done 8 hrs apart
acid fast bacilli culture
nucleic acid amplification (PCR) for TB/ MTB DNA probe
imaging
imaging tests for TB
- chest x-ray
- CT
- bronchoscopy
what will a chest x-ray show for latent TB?
may be normal or show show non-specific changes (lesions, cavitations)
what will a chest x-ray show for active TB?
either ill-defined patchy consolidation or fibroproliferative disease with course reticulonodular densities
what will a chest x-ray show for healed/ treated TB?
🐝 Ranke complex or Ghon focus (healed calcifications and calcified mediastinal lymph nodes)
testing for extrapulmonary TB
tissue biopsy from area of suspected infection
treatment of latent TB
• Prerequisite: Rule out active TB and test for HIV prior to initiating therapy
- Ioniazid (INH) x 9 months (+ supplemental B6)
(best treatment for healthy adults on minimal meds)
- Rifampin x 4 months
- Isoniazid and rifapentin x 3 months
(provider has to directly watch the patient take these meds)
(hint: R, I or R+I)
treatment for active TB and HIV-
Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide and Ethambutol (RIPE)
1. RIPE for 2 months
2. RIP (if pt has confirmed sensitivity to RIP drugs within the first 2 months)
3. RI for 4 months
• Infection Control: Negative-pressure isolation room until 3 consecutive negative AFB smears;
Directly Observed Therapy (DOT) recommended
treatment for active TB and HIV+
Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy: HAART (but note that it may cause paradoxical worsening of TB due to immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome/ IRIS. There are also a lot of drug interactions between TB meds and certain HIV meds so be aware)
treatment for active TB in pregnant patients
1. RIE therapy for 4-8 weeks
2. RI for 7 months (if pt has confirmed sensitivity to RI)
do not give pyrazinamide (especially during the 1st trimester)
hint: no P if Pregnant
how long do you treat multi-drug resistance TB
24 months
side effects of Rifampin
- turns bodily fluids reddish-orange
- polyarthralgias
- many drug interactions
- LFT abnormalities
hint: Rifampin turns bodily fluid Reddish-orange... ouch that must hurt (polyarthralgias)
side effects of Isoniazid
- peripheral neuropathy
- lupus like syndrome (flu symptoms, rash)
- LFT abnormalities
hint: Isoniazid = "I so numb" (peripheral neuropathy)
side effects of Pyrazinamide
- gout flares
- polyarthralgias
- LFT abnormalities
hint: the pyramids were built out of stones (uric acid crystals/stones can lead to gout) and the people who built them were probably very sore (polyarthralgias)
side effects of Ethambutol
- reversible optic neuritis (inflammation of the optic nerve leading to pain and vision changes, specifically color vision)
- LFT abnormalities
hint: Ethambutol causes Eye side effects
what monitoring needs to be done for a patient on TB meds? explain why
all TB meds are hepatotoxic and therefore liver function needs to be monitored throughout the course of treatment
monitor: ALT, AST, total bilirubin
stop TB treatment if:
- asymptomatic w/ a > 5x increase in AST
- symptomatic w/ a 3x increase in AST
- baseline normal LFTs w/ >3x increase in AST
cystic fibrosis pathology
Autosomal recessive disorder that causes a mutation of the CFTR (cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator) gene leading to abnormalities in the chloride and water transport across the surface of epithelial cells. As a result, almost all the exocrine glands in the body produce an abnormally thick and viscous mucous secretion that clogs the lungs, pancreas, liver, intestines and reproductive tract
risk factors for cystic fibrosis
- caucasian
- family Hx
pulmonary symptoms of cystic fibrosis
- cough
- sputum production
- decreased exercise tolerance
- recurrent hemoptysis
- chronic rhinosinusitis
- digital clubbing
- increased AP chest diameter
- hyperresonance to percussion
- apical crackles
- sinus tenderness
- purulent nasal secretion
- nasal polyps
pancreatic symptoms of cystic fibrosis
steatorrhea
GI symptoms of cystic fibrosis
- diarrhea
- abdominal pain
- malnourished
- biliary cirrhosis
- gallstones
reproductive tract symptoms of cystic fibrosis
congenital bilateral absence of vas deferens with azoospermia (infertility) in men
requirements for a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis
positive IRT and sweat chloride
or
positive genetic testing
diagnostics for cystic fibrosis
- labs: immunoreactive trypsinogen (IRT)
- sweat chloride test
- genetic testing
- ancillary testing
ancillary testing for cystic fibrosis
- chest x-ray
- CT
- pulmonary function testing (PFT)
treatment for pulmonary cystic fibrosis
- prevent infection and obstructions: vaccines, chest physiotherapy (postural drainage, percussion, vibration, etc.) and regular aerobic exercise
- airway clearance: dornase alfa
- CFTR modulators targeted: (elexacaftor, tezacaftor, ivacaftor triple therapy)
-caftor think cftr
treatment for pulmonary exacerbations of cystic fibrosis
also which pahtogen presents when: (S. aureus ____, P. aeruginosa ____),
short course of antibiotics depending on the infection
chronic inhaled tobramycin/aztreonam or
azithromycin for P. aeruginosa
(S. aureus early, P. aeruginosa late),
treatment for a pulmonary exacerbation of cystic fibrosis caused by methicillin-sensitive staphylococcus:
- penicillinase-resistant penicillin (Cloxacillin, Dicloxacillin)
- cephalosporin (Cephalexin)
- trimethoprim/ sulfamethoxazole
- Erythromycin
- Amoxicillin/ clavulanate
- tetracyclines
- Linezolid
treatment for a pulmonary exacerbation of cystic fibrosis caused by MRSA
- oral trimethoprim/ sulfamethoxazole
- Clindamycin
- Linezolid
- tetracycline
treatment for a pulmonary exacerbation of cystic fibrosis caused by P. aeruginosa
- short course of inhaled Tobramycin or Aztreonam lysine
and/or
- oral fluoroquinolone
treatment for frequent/ recurrent pulmonary exacerbations of cystic fibrosis
long term suppressive antibiotic therapy (Azithromycin)
treatment for refractory cystic fibrosis
cardio-pulmonary transplant
treatment for GI cystic fibrosis
- pancreatic enzyme supplementation (pancrealipase)
- treat malabsorption issues
- treat constipation
palliative care for cystic fibrosis
- reassess code status
- hospice services
- sufficient sedation to ensure peaceful dying
common complications of cystic fibrosis
in infants?
in men?
- bronchiectasis
- meconium ileus (in infants)
- recurrent pulmonary infections
- malabsorption
- recurrent pancreatitis
- distal intestinal obstruction
- biliary cirrhosis
- infertility in men
define pulmonary hypertension
abnormally high blood pressure in the pulmonary vasculature (usually the arteries and arterioles)
normal pulmonary pressure values and values seen in pulmonary HTN
normal values: 9-18 mmHg
pulmonary HTN: > 25 mmHg at rest or 30 mmHg with exercise
mechanisms that can cause pulmonary HTN (including the most common cause)
- increased pulmonary vascular resistance (most common)
- increased pulmonary venous pressure
- increased pulmonary venous flow due to congenital heart disease
pulmonary hypertension pathology
Vasoconstriction of blood vessels connected to the lungs making it harder for the heart to pump blood through the lungs. Over time the affected blood vessels become fibrotic which increases the blood pressure in the lungs and further impairs blood flow. With an increased workload, the heart hypertrophies leading to right sided heart failure (cor pulmonale) and eventually hypoxia of the left ventricle (because blood flow to this side is restricted)
WHO group 1
pulmonary hypertension due to a group of diseases that directly affect the pulmonary arteries resulting in structural changes (fibrosis, constriction, etc), smooth muscle hypertrophy and endothelial dysfunction, all leading to increased pressure
list the diseases in WHO group 1
- idiopathic
- hereditary
- connective tissue disease (vasculitis, etc)
- portal hypertension
- drugs (either recreational or prescription)
- toxins
- HIV
- schistosomiasis (parasitic infection)
WHO group 2
pulmonary hypertension caused by left sided heart disease
list the diseases in WHO group 2
- left ventricular systolic or diastolic dysfunction
- valvular malfunction
WHO group 3
pulmonary hypertension caused by lung diseases and/or chronic hypoxia (hypoxia causes arteriolar vasoconstriction leading to increased pressure)
list the diseases in WHO group 3
- COPD
- interstitial lung disease (ILD)
- disordered sleeping (OSA and chronic alveolar hypoventilation syndrome)
- alveolar hyperventilation
- chronic high altitude exposure
- developmental lung abnormalities
WHO group 4
pulmonary hypertension due to chronic thrombotic or embolic disease
list the disease in WHO group 4
- chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension
- obstruction of pulmonary circulation due to tumor or inflammation
subtype of WHO group 4
pulmonary veno-occlusive disease
WHO group 4: pulmonary veno-occlusive disease
pulmonary HTN caused by progressive occlusion of veins and venules with fibrosis, this eventually leads to backup into the arteries and arterioles, nodules, edema, hemorrhage, hemoptysis and death within 2 years
WHO group 5
pulmonary hypertension caused by an uncertain multifactorial mechanism (anything that doesn’t fit into the other categories)
list the diseases in WHO group 5
- haematological disease
- systemic disease
- metabolic disease
- others
which of the WHO groups is the most common cause of pulmonary HTN
WHO group 2
signs and symptoms of pulmonary HTN
(common and uncommon)
common:
- shortness of breath, especially during activity (exertional dyspnea)
- lethargy
- fatigue
uncommon:
- cough!!!!
- hemoptysis
- Ortner’s syndrome (hoarseness)!!!
class I pulmonary HTN
symptoms do not limit physical activity (asymptomatic)
class II pulmonary HTN
slight limitation to physical activity
patient is comfortable at rest but experiences symptoms with moderate physical activity (walking the dog)
class III pulmonary HTN
marked limitation to physical activity
patient is comfortable at rest but experiences symptoms with mild exercise (walking to the mailbox)
class IV pulmonary HTN
inability to carry out any physical activity
patient experiences symptoms even at rest and may have signs of right sided heart failure
Ortner's syndrome
compression of the left recurrent laryngeal nerve due to a dilated pulmonary artery leading to hoarseness
diagnostics for pulmonary HTN
Baseline assessment before initiation of therapy
Fxnl significance: exercising capacity
Echocardiogram
RH catheterization
• Initial: Echocardiogram (estimates RV systolic pressure, RV enlargement);
EKG (RVH, right atrial enlargement); elevated BNP/pro-BNP.
• Definitive: Right Heart Catheterization (RHC) confirming mean pulmonary artery pressure (mPAP) >20 mmHg at rest.
- PE
- chest x-ray
- EKG
- echocardiogram
what will a PE show for pulmonary HTN
abnormal heart sounds
what will a chest x-ray show for pulmonary HTN
- visible/ enlarged pulmonary arteries
- right ventricular enlargement
- right atrial dilation
- underlying cause of pulmonary HTN may be apparent
what will an EKG show for pulmonary HTN
- tall R waves in V1 and inverted T waves in V1-V3
- right ventricular hypertrophy
- chronic right ventricular overload
treatment of WHO group 1 pulmonary HTN
- treat underlying cause
- calcium channel blockers (nifedipine, diltiazem)
treatment of WHO group 1 pulmonary HTN for functional class II
oral endothelin receptor antagonists (ambrisentan, bosentan)
phosphodiesterase inhibitors (sildenafil, tadalafil)
soluble guanylate cyclase stimulators (riociguat)
treatment of WHO group 1 pulmonary HTN for functional class III or IV
prostanoid agents (IV Epoprostenol, sub Q and IV Teprostenol and inhaled Iloprost)
why is iloprost not often used for pulmonary HTN
because it's inhaled and the patient already has impaired lung function
treatment of WHO group 2 pulmonary HTN
treat underlying disease
treatment of WHO group 3 pulmonary HTN
- treat underlying disease
- supplemental O2 for 15+ hrs a day
treatment of WHO group 4 pulmonary HTN
anticoagulation
surgical treatment for pulmonary HTN
atrial septostomy: small hole created between the two atrial chambers leading to increased exercise capacity but also causes decreased PaO2
lung transplant (or lung + heart if the HTN is related to chronic heart disease)
asthma pathology
condition characterized by reversible bronchoconstriction, airway edema and inflammation, airway hyperreactivity and airway remodeling (goblet cell hyperplasia that causes increased mucous production and clogging of airways)
explain why asthma is considered reversible
with treatment, the airway remodeling that occurs during asthma can be corrected and the patient will retain their normal lung function
cardiac asthma
wheezing precipitated by decompensated heart failure
cough variant asthma
predominant symptom is cough instead of wheezing
exercise induced asthma
bronchoconstriction begins during exercise or within 3 minutes after its end, peaks within 10-15 minutes and then resolves after 60 minutes
caused by the airways attempting to humidify an increased volume of expired air during exercise
how often do daytime symptoms of intermittent, mild, moderate and severe asthma occur?
intermittent: ≤ 2 days/week
mild: > 2 days/week but not daily
moderate: daily
severe: throughout the day
how often do nighttime awakenings occur with intermittent, mild, moderate and severe asthma?
intermittent: ≤ 2x/month
mild: 3-4x/month
moderate: > 1x/week but not nightly
severe: often 7x/week
dosage of SABAs for intermittent, mild, moderate and severe asthma
intermittent: ≤ 2 days/week
mild: > 2 days/week but not > 1x/day
moderate: daily
severe: several times per day
level of interference with normal activity in intermittent, mild, moderate and severe asthma
intermittent: none
mild: minor limitation
moderate: some limitation
severe: extreme limitation
lung function (FEV1) in intermittent, mild, moderate and severe asthma
intermittent: FEV1 > 80% predicted
(normal FEV1 between exacerbations)
mild: FEV1 ≥ 80% predicted
moderate: FEV1 > 60% predicted
severe: FEV1 < 60% predicted