Cell & Cancer Bio - Exam 3 Practice

T/F: An epidemic is an infectious disease outbreak affecting multiple countries and/or continents

false

Which of the following are ongoing pandemics?

• polio

• ebola

• covid 19

• spanish flu

• measles

• black death

• aids

covid 19, aids

T/F: only procaryotic organisms and viruses can cause infections in humans

false

T/F: gram positive bacteria have lipopolysaccharides on their surface

false

which of the following are virulence factors?

• adhesins

• plasmids in vibrio cholerae

• ctx

• integrins and cadherins

• lps

• beta-chemokines

• cd4

• ccr5

• hemolysin

• alpha-chemokines

• ha

• cxcr4

adhesins, ctx, lps, hemolysin, ha

which of the following are related to cholera?

• gp120 - CD4/CCR5

• gp120 - CD4/CXCR4

• GPCR - AC - cAMP - CFTR

• adhesin - E-cadherin - type III secretion apparatus

GPCR - AC - cAMP - CFTR

What is the main envelope protein of influenza virus that allows for cell entry?

• ccr5

• cd4

• ha

• hemolysin

• cxcr4

• gp120

ha

T/F: most bacteria have mechanisms to prevent fusion of phagosomes with lysosomes

true

which of the following are functions of the immune system?

• promote harmful pathogen infiltration into the body

• identify and destroy harmful microbes

• prevent microbes from entering the body

• destroy healthy host cells

• limit how much damage microbes cause

identify and destroy harmful microbes, prevent microbes from entering the body, limit how much damage microbes cause

the main lymphoid organ is:

• lymph nodes

• bone marrow

• thymus

• spleen

bone marrow

T/F: the thymus is the site of B cell development

false

how fast does the innate immune response respond to a microbe?

• 3 weeks

• 0-6 hours

• 2 days

0-6 hours

T/F: the adaptive immune response will respond more quickly to the same secondary infection

true

what subunit of the classical complement pathway recognizes the antibodies bound to the microbe?

• c1

• c2

• c3

• c4

• c5

c1

what is the main difference between the classical and lectin complement pathway

• the alternative pathway does not use c3 convertase

• the classical pathway recognizes antibodies, and the lectin pathway recognizes lectin on the microbes

• both pathways lead to different outcomes

the classical pathway recognizes antibodies, and the lectin pathway recognizes lectin on the microbes

what are the outcomes of the complement cascade?

• lysis

• infection

• opsonization

• inflammation

• autoimmunity

lysis, opsonization, inflammation

what non-immune cells are the first line of defense against a pathogen

• epithelial cells

• fibroblasts

• endothelial cells

epithelial cells

neutrophils, the first immune cell responders, use what processes to kill microbes?

• neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs)

• phagocytosis

• direct killing of microbes

• promoting inflammation

• antibody neutralization

neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs), phagocytosis

which immune cells are both phagocytes and antigen presenting cells

• NK cells

• neutrophils

• macrophages

• dendritic cells

macrophages

T/F: CAR-NK cells require self MHC I presentation to recognize infected or cancerous cells

false

identify the incorrect MHC Class - TCR/co-receptor interaction(s) between dendritic cells and T cells

• MHC II - TCR/CD4

• MHC I - TCR/CD4

• MHC II - TCR/CD8

• MHC I - TCR/CD8

MHC I - TCR/CD4, MHC II - TCR/CD8

what are the 3 signals needed for dendritic cells to active T cells?

• antigen presentation

• co-stimulation

• direct contact

• chemokine signals

• cytokine signals

antigen presentation, co-stimulation, cytokine signals

identify the correct pair(s) of effector CD4+ T cell - pathogen

• Th2 cells - helminths

• Th2 cells - fungi

• Th17 cells - extracellular bacteria and fungi

• Th1 cells - intracellular pathogens

• Tfh cells - intracellular pathogens

Th2 cells - helminths, Th17 cells - extracellular bacteria and fungi, Th1 cells - intracellular pathogens

T/F: regulatory T cells suppress effector immune responses by producing both IL-10 and IFNy

false

T/F: B cells travel directly to the site of infection

false

T/F: activation of target killing pathways include MHC Class I and II

false

which of the following transmembrane channels on target cells?

• selectin

• perforin

• granzyme B

• type I interferons

• fas receptor trimer

perforin

which of the following activate apoptotic caspases in target cells?

• granzyme B

• inflammasome

• fas receptor

• T cell receptor

• toll-like receptors

granzyme B, fas receptor

which of the following form the peptide-binding site on MHC Class I proteins

• alpha 1 domain

• complementarity determining regions (CCRs)

• alpha3 domain

• alpha2 domain

• beta2 domain

alpha1 domain, alpha2 domain

which of the following sentences are correct?

• TCRs of CD8+ T cells bind to MHC Class II on APCs

• TCRs of CD8+ T cells bind to MHC Class I on APCs

• TCRs of CD4+ T cells bind to MHC Class II on APCs

• TCRs of CD4+ T cells bind to MHC Class I on APCs

TCRs of CD8+ T cells bind to MHC Class I on APCs, TCRs of CD4+ T cells bind to MHC Class II on APCs

MHC Class I consists of which of these molecules?

• a beta chain

• a beta2 microglobulin

• a gamma chain

• an alpha chain

a beta2 microglobulin, an alpha chain

MHC Class II consists of which of these molecules?

• a beta chain

• an alpha chain

• a gamma chain

• a beta2 microglobulin

a beta chain, an alpha chain

how many Complementarity Determining Regions (CDRs) are on a single chain of a T cell receptor?

• 1

• 2

• 3

• 6

• 12

3

which of the following pathways elicit an inflammatory response?

• NF-kappaB

• TGF-beta

• JAK/STAT

• toll-like receptor pathway

NF-kappaB, jak/stat, toll-like receptor pathway

which of the following are transcription factors?

• IKK

• interferon regulatory factors (e.g. IFR-3)

• STAT

• Ikappab (IkB)

• interferons (IFN)

• NF-kappaB (NF-kB)

• JAK

interferon regulatory factors (e.g. IFR-3), stat, nf-kappab (nf-kb)

T/F: interferons are ancient anti-viral proteins found in all eukaryotes

false

which of the following are inflammatory pathway mediators?

• eicosanoids

• inflammasomes

• chemokines

• vasodilators

• glucocorticoids

• pro-inflammatory cytokines (e.g. IL-1)

eicosanoids, chemokines, vasodilators, pro-inflammatory cytokines (e.g. IL-1)

which of the following are components of the inflammasome?

• ASC protein adaptor

• pro-IL-beta

• pro-caspase 1

• caspase 1

• NRL protein sensor

ASC, protein adaptor, pro-caspase 1, NRL protein sensor

what is the role of the inflammasome?

• activate the NF-kappaB pathway

• activate apoptotic pro-caspases

• activate the Dicer/RISC pathway to eliminate dsRNA

• activate inflammatory pro-interleukins

activate inflammatory pro-interleukins

which of the following are pro-inflammatory molecules?

• IL-1

• IL-4

• IL-6

• IL-10

• IL-13

• NGF-beta

• TNF-alpha

IL-1, IL-6, TNF-alpha

which of the following can be attributed to pro-inflammatory cytokines?

• infections

• organ failure

• cytokine release syndrome (CRS)

• wound healing

• weakened immune response

• fever

organ failure, cytokine release syndrome (CRS), fever

which of the following produces cortisol?

• pituitary gland

• hypothalamus

• bone marrow

• thymus

• liver

• adrenal gland

adrenal gland

which of the following stimulate the production of cortisol?

• TGF-beta

• TNF-alpha

• anti-inflammatory cytokines

• adrenocorticotropin hormone (ACTH)

• stress

• sleep/wake cycle

• pro-inflammatory cytokines

tnf-alpha, adrenocorticotropin hormone (ACTH), stress, sleep/wake cycle, pro-inflammatory cytokines

a precursor for the production of prostaglandins is:

• serotonin

• arachidonic acid

• cholesterol

• histamine

• cortisol

arachidonic acid

which of the following describes chronic inflammation

• the regulated release of cytokines to combat infection

• the rapid and uncontrollable release of large amounts of pro-inflammatory cytokines

• the continuous release of pro-inflammatory cytokines even in the absence of infection

the continuous release of pro-inflammatory cytokines even in the absence of infection

which of the following conditions can become life-threatening?

• cytokine release syndrome (CRS)

• chronic inflammation

• acute inflammation

• anaphylaxis (severe allergic reaction)

cytokine release syndrome (CRS), anaphylaxis (severe allergic reaction)

PD-1 activation in effector T cells leads to:

• apoptosis

• inhibition of perforin and granzyme B production

• cell cycle progression

• release of pro-inflammatory cytokines

• proliferation

apoptosis, inhibition of perforin and granzyme B production

T/F: cancer cells have high levels of PD-L1

true

which of the following best describes T cell exhaustion:

• a decrease in T cell proliferation

• a progressive loss of effector function

• a progressive decrease of cytokine production

• an increase in the expression of exhaustion-associated markers

• an increase in the expression of PD-1

a progressive loss of effector function

under physiologic conditions, PD-1 signaling leads to:

• killing of cancer cells and pathogens

• restraining immune responses of effector T cells and Tregs

• T cell exhaustion

• T cell dysfunction

restraining immune responses of effector T cells and Tregs