Foundations Exam 2

0.0(0)
Studied by 0 people
call kaiCall Kai
learnLearn
examPractice Test
spaced repetitionSpaced Repetition
heart puzzleMatch
flashcardsFlashcards
GameKnowt Play
Card Sorting

1/120

encourage image

There's no tags or description

Looks like no tags are added yet.

Last updated 12:46 AM on 10/5/26
Name
Mastery
Learn
Test
Matching
Spaced
Call with Kai
Chat

No analytics yet

Send a link to your students to track their progress

121 Terms

1
New cards

When do the three medication checks take place?

1. At the Pyxis

2. Preparing for administration

3. Scanning medications

2
New cards

How many times should you compare the label of the medication to the MAR?

Three

3
New cards

Which medications should be double checked with another RN before administration?

High alert meds

4
New cards

Should medications given via GT/NG tubes be given together or separately?

Separately

5
New cards

Where should a patient be positioned to administer rectal medications?

Lateral on left side

6
New cards

Where are eye drops placed?

Lower conjunctival sac

7
New cards

How should a nurse manipulate an adult's ear to administer ear drops?

Pull up and out

8
New cards

How should a nurse manipulate a child's ear to administer ear drops?

Pull down and back

9
New cards

What is the appropriate needle gauge for a sub Q injection?

25-28 gauge

10
New cards

What are the appropriate locations of a sub Q injection?

Arms, back, thighs, buttocks, abdomen

11
New cards

What is the appropriate needle length for a sub Q injection?

5/8" - 1/2"

12
New cards

What is the maximum dosage amount for a sub Q injection?

1 mL

13
New cards

What is the appropriate needle length for an IM injection in the deltoid?

1" (1" and 1mL for deltoid)

14
New cards

What is the appropriate needle length for an IM injection in the glute or thigh?

1"-3"

15
New cards

What is the maximum dose for an IM injection in the deltoid?

1mL (1" and 1mL for deltoid)

16
New cards

What is the appropriate needle gauge for an IM injection?

18-23 gauge

17
New cards

How do the lungs contribute to fluid mediation?

Expel moisture with exhalation - insensible water loss

18
New cards

What are the major implications of Na+ changes in the body?

Neurological changes

19
New cards

Which electrolyte must never be administered via IV push?

Potassium

20
New cards

What body systems does potassium primarily impact?

Cardiac and musculoskeletal

21
New cards

How does calcium impact the cardiac and musculoskeletal systems?

Regulates contractions

22
New cards

What two electrolytes should a nurse immediately check if a patient reports heart palpitations?

Calcium and potassium

23
New cards

Which measurement is the most sensitive for measuring fluid status?

Daily weights

24
New cards

What are some of the clinical manifestations of fluid volume deficit?

Decreased urine output, tachycardia, orthostatic hypotension, elevated temp, thready pulses

25
New cards

What hourly urine output should a nurse expect for a patient on effective IV fluid replacement therapy?

50 mL/hour

26
New cards

Which fluids are isotonic?

0.9% NaCl (normal saline)

Lactated Ringers

5% Dextrose in water (D5W)

27
New cards

Which fluids are hypotonic?

0.45% NaCl

28
New cards

Which fluids are hypertonic?

3.0% NaCl

10-15% Dextrose in water (D10W, D15W)

29
New cards

How would administering hypertonic fluids impact the body?

Pull fluid back into the vascular space

30
New cards

Which fluids are administered via the primary tubing, and which are administered via the secondary (piggyback) tubing?

Primary: maintenance fluids

Secondary: frequent medications

31
New cards

How often must IV bags be changed?

q24 hrs

32
New cards

How often must central line IV tubing be changed?

q24 hrs

33
New cards

How often must peripheral IV tubing be changed?

q72-96 hrs

34
New cards

Is a patient at greater or lesser risk of transfusion reactions with the more transfusions they receive?

Greater risk - more antigen exposures

35
New cards

What value should increase if a patient receives packed RBCs? By how much?

Hematocrit (Hct) by 4% max

36
New cards

When should a nurse take a patient's vital signs during a blood transfusion?

1. Before administration

2. 15 minutes after the infusion begins

3. Every hour (if first two checks are normal)

4. After completion

37
New cards

What fluids are administered with blood transfusions?

ONLY normal saline

38
New cards

A patient receives an order for a blood transfusion. What is the nurse's priority action?

Check for a blood transfusion consent form

39
New cards

What is the most common transfusion reaction?

Febrile

40
New cards

What are the first symptoms of a hemolytic transfusion reaction? What causes these symptoms?

Low back pain caused by the kidneys being clogged with broken down (post-attack) RBCs

41
New cards

What is the priority concern for a patient experiencing an allergic reaction to a transfusion?

Maintaining an airway

42
New cards

What is the priority nursing action if the patient experiences any transfusion reaction?

Stop the transfusion and notify provider

43
New cards

Where does edema occur?

Interstitial space of tissues

44
New cards

Where does ascites occur?

Peritoneal cavity

45
New cards

What are some of the clinical manifestations of fluid volume excess? Which is most dangerous?

Edema, pulmonary edema (most dangerous), jugular vein distension (JVD)

46
New cards

What should be considered during a nutrition assessment?

Food allergies

Problems chewing/swallowing

Dentures

Diet restrictions (diabetic, cardiac, etc.)

Religious/cultural restrictions

Vegetarian/vegan

47
New cards

Describe a cardiac diet.

Low fat, low sodium

48
New cards

Describe a renal diet.

Restricts Na, P, K, fluid, protein

49
New cards

Describe a diabetic diet.

High fiber, little/no sugar

50
New cards

List some aspiration precausions.

Liquid thickness

Sitting up to eat

Small bites

Oral care before and after

51
New cards

How should the placement of an NG tube be verified?

X ray

Aspirate - contents should have a pH

52
New cards

How much water should a nurse flush a feeding tube with?

30 mL

53
New cards

How often should a nurse measure gastric residual volumes?

Every 4-6 hours

54
New cards

List some risk factors for impaired skin integrity.

Immobility

Poor nutrition

Fecal/urinary incontinence

Diminished sensation

Altered mental status

Advanced age

55
New cards

A patient has an area of intact skin with non-blanchable redness. What stage pressure injury is this?

Stage 1

56
New cards

A patient has an area with partial thickness loss of dermis, which presents as a shallow, open ulcer. What stage pressure injury is this?

Stage 2

57
New cards

A patient has an area with visible subcutaneous tissue (but no bone, tendons, or muscle). What stage pressure injury is this?

Stage 3

58
New cards

A patient has an area with full thickness tissue loss with visible bone, tendon, and muscle. What stage pressure injury is this?

Stage 4

59
New cards

What would make a pressure injury unstageable?

Base of the injury covered by slough or eschar

60
New cards

A patient has an area of purple or maroon skin, which is intact. What type of injury is this?

Deep tissue injury

61
New cards

What are the three stages of wound healing? How long does each last?

1. Inflammation: 4-6 days

2. Proliferation: 4-24 days

3. Remodeling: 21 days - 2 years

62
New cards

A patient has a surgical incision that has been approximated and sutured. What type of healing will this wound likely exhibit?

Primary intention

63
New cards

A wound fills with a large clot that is eventually replaced by granulation tissue and a large scar. What type of healing did this wound exhibit?

Secondary intention

64
New cards

A contaminated wound fills with granulation tissue with a large fissure. What type of wound healing is this?

Tertiary intention

65
New cards

Which vitamins promote wound healing?

Vitamins A and C

66
New cards

How does limiting edema help a wound heal?

Wound edges cannot approximate if the swelling is severe

67
New cards

Why must necrotic tissue be removed to allow for wound healing?

Necrotic tissue prevents granulation tissue from forming.

68
New cards

What is the primary nursing consideration for a dry wound?

Hydrate the wound

69
New cards

What is the primary nursing consideration for a wet wound?

Absorb exudate

70
New cards

What is the primary nursing consideration for a shallow wound?

Cover the wound

71
New cards

What is the primary nursing consideration for a deep wound?

Pack the wound

72
New cards

What are some observations about a wound that should be included in documentation?

Base description

Drainage

Edges

Odor

Pain

Progress

Location

Stage

Dimensions

Tunneling

73
New cards

What is the difference between a tracheotomy and tracheostomy?

Tracheotomy is the procedure of creating an opening for the trach, tracheostomy is the hole that is created (stomy=stoma)

74
New cards

What are the priority considerations for air entering a trach tube?

Must be humidified and at the appropriate temperature since it bypasses the nose and mouth

75
New cards

What is the primary purpose of suctioning the trach?

Maintain a clear airway for patients who cannot cough out secretions

76
New cards

What are the potential complications of suctioning a tracheotomy?

Hypoxia

Tissue trauma

Vagal stimulation

Cardiac dysrthythmias

77
New cards

What is the name of the device that is used to help insert a tracheotomy if it becomes removed or needs to be changed?

Obturator

78
New cards

What should a nurse keep in the room for a patient with a tracheotomy?

Obturator

Same size trach and one smaller

Inner canula

Suction

Sterile water

Suction catheters and yankauer

Sterile gloves

Ambu bag

Humidification

79
New cards

How many nurses should be in the room when providing trach care? Why?

Two - one holds trach in place to prevent decannulation

80
New cards

What must never be used in a room with oxygen?

Oil or alcohol based products (other than hand sanitizer) or open flames.

81
New cards

A patient wants to apply petroleum jelly on their nose to help with pressure injuries from their nasal canula. Is this allowed?

No - petroleum jelly is oil-based

82
New cards

What is tracheomalacia?

Weakening of the tracheal cartilage that causes the trachea to collapse when breathing out

83
New cards

What should a nurse do directly before suctioning a trach?

Hyperoxygenate the patient

84
New cards

How often must a central line dressing be changed?

Every 7 days

85
New cards

What must the patient and nurse wear when cleaning a central line?

Masks

86
New cards

What must also be changed when a nurse changes a central line dressing?

Injection caps

87
New cards

A patient is experiencing labored breathing/shortness of breath. What is this called?

Dyspnea

88
New cards

A patient is experiencing shortness of breath when they change positions. What is this called?

Orthopnea

89
New cards

What are bronchovesicular sounds?

The sounds of air moving through bronchial tubes and open lung fields

90
New cards

What are vesicular sounds?

Soft blowing sounds in the open areas of the lungs near the alveoli

91
New cards

What conditions are associated with crackles?

Pneumonia, COPD (fine), pulmonary edema (course)

92
New cards

What causes rhonchi?

Secretions in the large airways

93
New cards

What causes stridor?

Severe obstructions of the upper airways

94
New cards

What conditions cause wheezing?

COPD, asthma (tightening of lower airways)

95
New cards

What are some nursing teachings that promote proper breathing?

Teaching deep breathing

Use of incentive spirometer

Teaching pursed-lip breathing

Teaching diaphragmatic breathing

96
New cards

In what position should an unsecured oxygen tank be placed?

On its side (only upright and unattended if secured)

97
New cards

What levels can a nasal canula be set to?

2-6L

98
New cards

What must be added to oxygen in a nasal canula if the rate is greater than 4lpm?

Moisture

99
New cards

When are low flow oxygen systems used?

When the patient can meet some of their inspiratory needs by inhaling both the oxygen and some room air

100
New cards

When are high flow oxygen systems used?

When the patient does cannot meet an adequate inspiratory rate or tidal volume