ATI System Review

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156 Terms

1
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The main cargo door may be operated and may be held at CANOPY or FULL OPEN position in steady winds up to ______ knots

40

2
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The B767 main cargo door is controlled electrically, but uses hydraulic actuators that get pressure from the center hydraulic system. T OR F

False

3
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the B767 main deck cargo door may be electrically operated provided that the airplane is on the ground, the landing gear lever is down, the left engine is not running, and the ___________ is powered

ground handling bus

4
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The 767 main cargo door discrete light on the center instrument panel will not illuminate in flight if the door is closed and latched, but not locked. T OR F

False

5
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Small inspection ports are installed on the lower exterior side of the main cargo door to allow inspection of the _____

Door locking mechanism

6
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The halon fire extinguisher may be used on all types of fires, but it is designed to be used primarily on _____

electrical, fuel, and grease fires

7
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If the halon fire extinguisher is discharged in the flight deck, how long should the flight crew and supernumeraries use 100% oxygen?

At least 7 minutes after the last halon discharge

8
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The portable oxygen bottle and full face mask located in the supernumerary compartment will provide a constant flow of oxygen for________ minutes duration

15

9
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The emergency lighting UNARMED discrete light indicates the emergency light switch is in the ______ position only

OFF OR ON

10
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During the climb portion of flight, the cabin altitude climbs at a rate proportional to the airplane rate of climb until reaching the maximum normal differential pressure of ____ PSI

8.6

11
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What type of electrical power is used for outflow valve operation during automatic control?

AC ONLY

12
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When is the alternate cabin pressurization auto controller automatically self-tested?

After each landing

13
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During automatic pack control, which compartment controls the temperature output of the air conditioning packs?

The compartment requiring the coolest air

14
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What conditions will cause illumination of the equipment cooling VALVE light?

Any of the supply or exhaust valve(s) are not in the correct position

15
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If the LEFT pack INOP light comes on due to an overheat of the air as it leaves the pack, what happens to pack operation?

LEFT pack is operating in an uncontrolled, degraded condition

16
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When a pack selector is positioned to STBY N, what is the outlet temperature of the associated pack?

Constant moderate temperature

17
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If the trim air switch is selected OFF, how are the zone temperature controls affected?

Compartment INOP lights illuminate

18
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The left PACK OFF light indicates the left pack valve is _____

Closed

19
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What electrical power is used for manual cabin altitude control?

DC only

20
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Which statement best describes the automatic pressurization system?

Two independent automatic systems control a single outflow valve powered by two AC motors

21
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Which of the following describes the START position of the APU selector?

Spring loaded back to ON when released

22
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What can the APU FAULT light indicate?

APU fuel valve is not in commanded position

23
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What is the normal sequence of events when the APU selector is turned OFF if the APU is supplying bleed air?

APU bleed air valve closes, then APU fuel valve closes after a short cool down cycle

24
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What is the minimum electrical power needed to start and operate the APU?

APU battery and aircraft main battery

25
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Which statement is true regarding the APU?

APU can supply electrical power in flight up to the maximum certificated altitude of the airplane, but bleed air is available up to approximately 17,000 feet.

26
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What effect would selecting the battery switch OFF while the APU is running on the ground?

APU will shutdown after the normal cool down cycle with no fire detection capability

27
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What is the maximum number of APU start attempts in a 60 minute period?

3

28
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What flight director modes are activated by placing a flight director switch ON while on the ground with no autopilots engaged and the opposite flight director switch OFF?

TO and TO

29
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What occurs when the A/T ARM switch is selected to OFF?

Autothrottle disconnects and prevents re-engagement

30
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In which mode will the autothrottle system NOT reposition the thrust levers if the pilot moves the thrust levers?

THR HLD

31
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During a crosswind ILS approach with LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated on the ASAs, at what approximate radio altitude does the autopilot enter the runway alignment submode?

500 feet RA

32
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Which of the following will prevent selection of the GA mode?

Either engine in reverse thrust

33
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above 400 feet RA, which action would deactivate the GA mode during a go-around?

Select different roll and or pitch mode

34
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What happens if the ALT HOLD mode is selected during a climb or a descent?

The airplane returns to the altitude at which the ALT HOLD mode was engaged

35
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Which auto flight mode will display the current vertical speed on the mode control panel?

V/S

36
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During a multiple autopilot ILS approach below 1500 feet RA, what ASA status indicates a Fail Operational autoland status

LAND 3

37
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When does autopilot rudder control become active during a multiple autopilot ILS approach?

When LAND 2 or LAND 3 is annunciated on the ASAs

38
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If an engine driven generator fails during a multiple autopilot approach above 200 feet, what effect does this failure have on the auto land system if the APU is not operating?

Electrical system will automatically transfer through the AC bus tie system, ASA changes to LAND 2

39
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What is controlled by the service interphone switch on the accessory panel?

Service interphone jacks located in unpressurized external areas except for the flight interphone jack on the nose gear strut

40
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How can the flight crew initiate a ground call to ground personnel when the aircraft is on the ground?

Press the GND CALL switch on the pilot call panel

41
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What stations are connected through the flight interphone system?

All flight crew, and on the ground, ground crew through the APU ground control panel located on the nose gear

42
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With the BUS TIE switch in AUTO, what causes the AC bus ISLN light to illuminate

Bus tie breaker is open due to a fault

43
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What caused the generator OFF light to illuminate

Associated generator breaker is open

44
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What causes the standby power bus OFF light to illuminate?

Loss of power on either the standby AC or standby DC bus

45
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Which of the following will cause the generator DRIVE light to illuminate?

High oil temperature or low oil pressure

46
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How can an engine driver generator be reset if the generator OFF light illuminates due to a fault?

Select the generator control switch OFF, then ON

47
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Which electrical bus normally provides power to the main and APU battery chargers?

Ground service bus

48
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What is required to allow the captains flight instrument transfer bus to transfer with the loss of power on the LEFT AC main bus?

Only the LEFT bus tie switch must be in AUTO

49
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What buses can be powered on a single hydraulic generator (HDG) equipped aircraft if the main AC buses fail?

Standby AC bus, Standby DC bus, hot battery bus, captains flight instrument transfer bus, and left and right AC transfer busses

50
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If the main AC busses are unpowered in flight, what is powering the STANDBY AC and STANDBY DC buses?

Standy DC bus is powered by main battery. Standby AC bus is powered by main battery through the static inverter

51
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What indications occur on the engines EGT display if the EGT exceeds the red line limit during engine start?

Maximum exceedance value attained will be displayed in white

52
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When does the engine start selector automatically return to auto?

50% N2 RPM

53
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What happens when the fuel control switch is placed to the CUTOFF position?

The associated engine and spar valve close

54
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How is the engine oil pressure display affected when engine oil pressure reaches the minimum operating limit?

The engine oil display changes color to red

55
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When will the in-flight start envelope be displayed on the primary EICAS display?

When an engine is shut down in-flight and the secondary engine display is in view

56
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After landing, when can the reverse levers be raised to the interlock stop?

When the forward thrust levers are at the idle position

57
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What does a REV ISLN light on the ground indicate?

The thrust reverser system has a fault

58
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What message is displayed if the right EEC switch is turned off and the thrust levers are moved full forward?

R EEC OFF

59
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Which of the following indicates a complete failure of the left engine fire detection system?

EICAS advisory message FIRE/OVHT SYS

60
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When are the engine fire detectors automatically self-tested?

When electrical power is initially applied

61
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Which areas of the airplane have fire extinguishing capability?

Engines, APU, and lower cargo compartments (most airplanes)

62
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During an APU fire when the airplane is on the ground, how can the APU fire bottle(s) be discharged?

Pulling and rotating the APU fire switch in either direction

63
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On the 767, which of the following conditions occur when the cargo fire depressurization switch is selected to DEPR and both air conditioning packs are operating?

Signals the left pack to low flow, and shuts down the right pack when both packs are operating

64
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What indications would occur if electric stabilizer trim is used when a single autopilot is engaged?

Autopilot would disengage

65
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Which of the following conditions is true for the stabilizer trim when both stabilizer trim cutout switches are in the CUTOUT position?

Hydraulic power is cutoff to the stabilizer

66
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What is the purpose of the flap load relief system?

Protects the flap system from excessive airloads

67
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What indications would occur if manual or alternate stabilizer trim is used with an autopilot engaged?

UNSCHED STAB TRIM caution message and discrete light

68
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Which hydraulic systems operate the B767 stabilizer trim?

LEFT and CENTER

69
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Which hydraulic system(s) operate the 767 flaps and slats under normal conditions?

CENTER sytem

70
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Which ailerons operate at all aircraft speeds on the 767?

Inboard ailerons

71
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Why should the speedbrake lever not be placed to the ARMED detent if the AUTO SPDBRK light illuminates?

To prevent inadvertent speedbrake extension in flight

72
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What is indicated by a FLAP LD RELIEF EICAS advisory message?

Flap load relief system failed to operate when required

73
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What is the function of the rudder ratio system?

Desensitizes rudder pedal inputs from the pilot with increasing airspeed

74
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Which of the following conditions are indicated by the UNSCHED STAB TRIM light?

Stabilizer is moving without a trim signal

75
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What conditions are necessary for the speed brakes to extend automatically at touchdown?

Both thrust levers at idle, main landing gear trucks not tilted, and speed brake lever in ARMED position

76
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What of the following condition(s) are indicated by the SPEEDBRAKES EXT caution message and discrete light?

Speedbrakes are extended and flaps are in landing position

77
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What provides airplane magnetic heading to the flight instruments?

Inertial reference system

78
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Which of the following indicates a failure of the respective symbol generator on EFIS equipped airplanes?

ADI and HSI displays are blank

79
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What attitude source normally provides aircraft attitude information to Captains ADI?

Left IRS

80
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How can airspeed and altitude information be restored to the first officers flight instruments if the altimeter and airspeed indicator OFF flags are displayed?

Select the ADC switch to ALTN

81
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How can attitude and heading information be restored to the captains flight instruments if the ATT and HDG flags are displayed?

Select the IRS switch to ALTN

82
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What light(s) should illuminate when the IRS mode selector is moved form OFF to NAV?

ON DC momentarily, then the ALIGN

83
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What indicates the flight director is not supplying valid commands?

Command bars dissapear

84
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Which pitot tube and static ports supply the standby airspeed indicator?

LEFT Aux pitot and the alternate static ports

85
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What will be displayed on the MACH indicator if mach fails below M.40?

MACH indcator will be blank

86
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Where are TAS and SAT found?

CDU PROG 2/2 page

87
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Pitch limit indicator (PLI) is displayed on most airplanes _____

When flaps are extended

88
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If ADI and HSI displays are blank on EFIS equipped airplanes, what action should be taken to restore the displays?

ALT EFI switch should be set on ALTN (Center SG is activated)

89
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Which EFIS HSI control panel position(s) require(s) manual tuning of the DME?

VOR or ILS

90
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How does the FMC use radio navigation information to update position?

By using data received from the DME, VOR, and ILS

91
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Flight directors are ON prior to takeoff, you have selected LNAV and VNAV after takeoff, what will happen if you do not select the autopilot (A/P)?

The FMC drives the command bars on the ADI to allow you to hand fly the computed LNAV and VNAV path

92
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If the left FMC fails on the basic FMC equipped aircraft, which autopilot should be used for LNAV and VNAV operation?

RIGHT autopilot only

93
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What is the significance of the IRS NAV ONLY message on the CDU?

The FMC has been without radio updating for a predetermined time

94
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What must occur to restore LNAV and VNAV operation if the VNAV and LNAV are engaged and the center A/P is in CMD on a basic FMC equipped airplane?

The right A/P must be engaged

95
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Where can speed and altitude restrictions at a waypoint be entered into the CDU?

RTE LEGS page

96
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What pitch and thrust modes are controlled by the FMC?

The modes commanded by VNAV

97
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Which of the following is true regarding the ILS?

The ILS is automatically tuned by the FMC only during an approach

98
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When total usable fuel in either left or right main fuel tank drops below approximately ____ pounds, the FUEL CONFIG light illuminates and the LOW FUEL caution message is displayed.

2,200 pounds

99
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Can the LEFT forward pump be switched off if it is supplying fuel to the APU on the ground with the APU running?

No, the pump cannot be turned off

100
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Where does the total fuel value come from?

From a separate calculation in the fuel quantity processor