Bio 2302 lab

What are the methods of capillary exchange? Describe how each functions.

a. Diffusion

b. Transcytosis

c. Bulk flow – filtration and absorption/reabsorption.

What factors affect blood flow? Describe how each of these effects blood flow.

a. Blood pressure – cardiac output, blood volume, viscosity, resistance and elasticity of arteries.

b. Resistance – vascular resistance, total peripheral resistance.

What are the functions of the lymphatic system?

the body's drainage, transport, and defense network

What is the structure and location of lymphatic vessels?

network of thin walled valved tubes

3. What is the path of lymph flow through the lymphatic vessels?

from tissue into bloodstream

4. What are lymphatic trunks and ducts?

trunks is when the vessels unite, ducts empty out all the disease

5. What helps to move lymphatic fluid and its return to the cardiovascular system?

a. skeletal muscle pump and valves

What are the primary lymphatic organs and their functions

The primary lymphatic organs are those in which cells

become immunocompetent (capable of mounting an immune response) the red bone marrow (B cells) and the Thymus

gland (T cells).

What are the secondary lymphatic organs?

Lymph nodes and spleen

What is the structure and function of lymph nodes?

Answer: small, bean shaped secondary lymphoid organs distributed along lymphatic vessels throughout the body

9. What is the structure and functions of the spleen?

fist sized, purplish organ located in the upper left side of the abdomen protected by the lower ribs

11. What is MALT?

Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue

What is immunity?

bodys ability to resist and protect itself against infectious diseases, harmful germs, viruses, bacteria, and toxins

13. What is innate immunity?

bodys natural defense system present from birth and rapid non specific response to harmful foreign substances

What is the first line of defense in innate immunity? Know what the barriers are, where they are located and how

they function.

a. Physical or mechanical barriers

b. Chemical barriers

What is the second line of defense in innate immunity? Know what the following are, where they are located and

how they function.

a. Antimicrobial proteins such as interferon, antibodies, complement, iron-binding proteins etc.

skin pores,semen,vaginal secretion. provide low pH and anticrobial chemicals that prevent fungi and bacteria from multiplying

b. Natural killer cells and phagocytes

white blood cells so they are located in the blood stream

c. Inflammation

in blood stream, causes vasodilation(widening of blood vessels)

d. Fever

entire body, heats body to prevent illness

What is adaptive immunity?

in the immune system that targets specific pathogens the body has already encountered/learned to recognize

What are antigens

any molecule that your immune system can recognize and to identify if a substance belongs in your body or a intruder

Where are all the different white bloods cells produced and where to they mature especially B cells and T cells?

come from red bone marrow, in lymphoid line

19. What is cell mediated immunity? Describe how it works.

adaptive immune response that does not rely on antibodies using T cells

20. What is humoral immunity? Describe how it works.

adaptive immune system that defends the body against extracellular pathogens

21. What is clonal selection? What are effector cells and memory cells?

core process of the adaptive immune system. effector cells immediately fight off current infection. memory cells are there even after

22. What are antigen receptors?

specialized protein complexes found on the surface of immune cells

23. What is a major histocompatibility complex? What are the differences between the two types?

set of cell surface proteins essential for the adaptive immune system.

24. How are antigens processed?

a. For an immune response to occur, B and T cells must recognize that a foreign antigen is present.

b. B cells can recognize and bind to antigens in extracellular fluid.

c. T cells, however, can only recognize fragments of antigenic proteins that first have been processed and

presented in association with MHC self-antigens.

d. Peptide fragments from foreign antigens help stimulate MHC molecules.

e. Processing of Exogenous Antigens

a. Cells called antigen-presenting cells (APCs) process exogenous antigens (antigens formed outside the

body) and present them together with MHC class II molecules to T cells (Figure 22.13)

b. APCs include macrophages, B cells, and dendritic cells.

c. Steps in processing and presenting an exogenous antigen by an APC include ingestion of the antigen,

digestion of antigen into peptide fragments, fusion of vesicles, binding of peptide fragments to MHC-II

molecules, and insertion of antigen-MHC-II complex into the plasma membrane.

f. Most cells of the body can process and present endogenous antigens, antigens that were synthesized in a

body cell (e.g., viral proteins from virus-infected cells). The process is depicted in Figure 22.14)

B. Cytokines

a. Cytokines are small protein hormones needed for many normal cell functions.

b. Table 22.2 describes some of the cytokines that participate in immune responses.

Some cytokines have been used to treat certain types of cancer.

25. What are the steps and cells involved in cell mediated immunity?

A. In a cell-mediated immune response, an antigen is recognized (bound), a small number of specific T cells

proliferate and differentiate into a clone of effector cells (a population of identical cells that can recognize

the same antigen and carry out some aspect of the immune attack), and the antigen (intruder) is eliminated.

B. Activation of T Cells

a. T cell receptors recognize antigen fragments associated with MHC molecules on the surface of a

body cell (Figure 22.15)

b. Proliferation of T cells requires co-stimulation, by cytokines such as interleukin-1 (IL-1) and

interleukin-2 (IL-2), or by pairs of plasma membrane molecules, one on the surface of the T cell and

a second on the surface of an APC.

C. Activation and clonal selection of helper T Cells

a. Helper T (TH) cells, or CD4 T cells, display CD4 protein, recognize antigen fragments associated with

MHC-II molecules, and secrete several cytokines, most important, interleukin-2, which acts as a co-

stimulator for other helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, and B cells.

b. Once a helper T cell is activated it creates clones of other helper T and memory T cells (Figure

22.15).

D. Activation and clonal selection of helper T Cells

a. Cytotoxic T (TC) cells, or CD8 T cells, develop from T cells that display CD8 protein and recognize

antigen fragments associated with MHC-I molecules.

b. Once activated cytotoxic T cells undergo clonal selection to form more active cytotoxic T cells and

memory cytotoxic T cells (Figure 22.16)

E. Elimination of invaders

a. Cytotoxic T cells fight foreign invaders by killing the target cell (the cell that bears the same antigen

that stimulated activation or proliferation of their progenitor cells) without damaging the cytotoxic T

cell itself (Figure 22.17).

b. One killing mechanism uses perforin to cause cytolysis of the target cell.

c. The second mechanism uses lymphotoxin to activate damaging enzymes within the target cell.

F. Immunological Surveillance

a. Immunological surveillance is carried out by cytotoxic T cells.

b. They recognize tumor antigens and destroy the tumor cell.

c. The immune system can recognize proteins in transplanted organs as foreign and mount a graft

rejection.

26. What are the steps involved in humoral immunity?

A. The body contains not only millions of different T cells but also millions of different B cells, each capable of

responding to a specific antigen.

B. Activation and clonal selection of B Cells

a. During activation of a B cell, an antigen binds to antigen receptors on the cell surface (Figure 22.18).

b. B cell antigen receptors are chemically similar to the antibodies that will eventually be secreted by

their progeny.

c. Some antigen is taken into the B cell, broken down into peptide fragments and combined with the

MHC-II self-antigen, and moved to the B cell surface.

d. Helper T cells recognize the antigen-MHC-II combination and deliver the costimulation needed for B

cell proliferation and differentiation.

e. Some activated B cells become antibody-secretion plasma cells. Others become memory B cells.

C. Antibodies

a. An antibody is a protein that can combine specifically with the antigenic determinant on the antigen

that triggered its production.

D. Antibody Structure

a. Antibodies consist of heavy and light chains and variable and constant portions (Figure 22.19).

b. Based on chemistry and structure, antibodies are grouped into five principal classes each with

specific biological roles (IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD, and IgE). Table 22.3 summarizes the structures and

functions of these five classes of antibodies.

E. Antibody actions

a. The functions of antibodies include neutralizing antigen, immobilization of bacteria, agglutination

and precipitation of antigen, activation of complement and enhancing phagocytosis.

b. Monoclonal antibodies are pure antibodies produced by fusing a B cell with a tumor cell that is

capable of proliferating endlessly. The resulting cell is called a hybridoma. Monoclonal antibodies

are important in measuring levels of a drug in a patient’s blood and in the diagnosis of pregnancy,

allergies, and diseases such as hepatitis, rabies, and some sexually transmitted diseases. They have

also been used in early detection of cancer and assessment of extent of metastasis. They may be

useful in preparing vaccines to counteract transplant rejection, to treat autoimmune diseases, and

perhaps to treat AIDS. (Clinical Connection)

F. Role of Complement system in immunity

a. group of about 20 proteins present in blood plasma and on cell membranes comprises the

complement system; when activated, these proteins “complement” or enhance certain immune,

allergic, and inflammatory reactions (Figure 22.20).

G. Immunological Memory

a. Immunological memory is due to the presence of long-lived antibodies and very long-lived

lymphocytes that arise during proliferation and differentiation of antigen-stimulated B and T cells.

b. Immunization against certain microbes is possible because memory B cells and memory T cells

remain after the primary response to an antigen (Figure 22.21).

H. The secondary response (immunological memory) provides protection should the same microbe enter the

body again. There is rapid proliferation of memory cells, resulting in a far greater antibody titer (amount of

antibody in serum) than during a primary response.

I. Table 22.4 summarizes the various types of naturally and artificially acquired immunity.

27. What is self-recognition?

capacity of an organism to recognize itself and a distinct entity seperate from the external environment and others

28. What is self-tolerance?

immune system's ability to recognize the bodies own cells and molecules as non threatening and refrain from attacking them

What is hypersensitivity

exaggerated,harmful, or inappropriate immune system to an antigen/allergen that the body had previously been exposed to

30. What are different types of hypersensitivity and the immune responses involved? Be able to recognize and example

of each.

A. A person who is overly reactive to a substance that is tolerated by most others is said to be hypersensitive

(allergic reactions). Whenever an allergic reaction occurs, there is tissue injury. The antigens that induce an

allergic reaction are called allergens.

a. There are four basic types of hypersensitivity reactions.

b. Type I (anaphylaxis) reactions are the most common and occur with a few minutes after a person

sensitized to an allergen is reexposed to it. Anaphylaxis results from the interaction of allergens with

IgE antibodies on the surface of mast cells and basophils. In anaphylactic shock, which may occur in

a susceptible individual who has just received a triggering drug or been stung by a wasp, wheezing

and shortness of breath as airways constrict are usually accompanied by shock due to vasodilation

and fluid loss from blood. This is a life-threatening emergency.

c. Type II (cytotoxic) reactions are caused by antibodies (IgG or IgM) directed against a person’s blood

cells or tissue cells. The reaction of antibodies and antigens usually leads to activation of

complement. Type II reaction, which may occur in incompatible blood transfusion reactions, damage

cells by causing lysis.

d. Type III (immune complex) reactions involve antigens (not part of a host tissue cell), antibodies (IgA

or IgM), and complement. Some type II conditions include glomerulonephritis, systemic lupus

erythematosus, and rheumatoid arthritis.

e. Type IV (cell-mediated) reactions or delayed hypersensitivity reactions usually appear 12-72 hours

after exposure to an allergen and occur when allergens are taken up by antigen-presenting cells that

migrate to lymph nodes and present the allergen to T cells. Intracellular bacteria, such as the one

that causes tuberculosis, trigger this type of cell-mediated immune response.

What are some disorders?

B. AIDS: Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome – from textbook

a. AIDS is a condition in which a person experiences a telltale assortment of infections as a result of the

progressive destruction of immune cells by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).

b. Although HIV has been isolated from several body fluids, the only documented transmissions are by

way of blood, semen, vaginal secretions, and breast milk from an infected nursing mother. It does

not appear that people become infected as a result of routine, nonsexual contacts.

a. The AIDS virus is generally thought to be quite fragile outside of the body and easily

eliminated with standard disinfecting techniques.

b. At present, the only means of preventing AIDS is to block transmission of the virus, including

abstinence from sex with infected individuals, use of condoms during intercourse, use of

sterile hypodermic needles, and avoidance of pregnancy in HIV-infected women. Until there

is an effective drug therapy or an effective vaccine, preventing the spread of AIDS must rely

on education and safer sexual practices.

c. HIV is a form of retrovirus with a protein coat wrapped by an envelope of glycoproteins

(Figure 22.23).

d. HIV enters T cells where it sheds its protein coat.

e. New HIV DNA is produced in the T cell along with new protein coats and then released.

f. The T cells are ultimately destroyed.

g. Common signs and symptoms of infection are fever, fatigue, rash, headache, joint pain, sore

throat, and swollen lymph nodes. The infected individual ultimately develops antibodies to

HIV.

h. Progression to AIDS occurs because of reduced numbers of T cells and resulting

immunodeficiency. AIDS lowers the body’s immunity by decreasing the number of helper T

cells; the result is progressive collapse of the immune system, making the person

susceptible to opportunistic infections (invasion of normally harmless microorganisms that

now proliferate wildly because of the defective immune system).

i. Treatment of HIV infection with reverse transcriptase inhibitors and protease inhibitors has

shown to delay the progression of HIV infection to AIDS.

C. In an autoimmune disease the immune system fails to display self-tolerance and attacks the person’s own

tissue.

D. Infectious mononucleosis is a contagious disease primarily affecting lymphatic tissue throughout the body

but also affecting the blood. It is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus which multiplies in B cells. There is no cure,

and treatment consists of watching for and treating complications. Usually the disease runs its course in a

few weeks.

E. Lymphomas are cancers of the lymphatic organs especially the lymph nodes. The two main types are:

Hodgkin disease and non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

F. Systemic lupus erythematosus is a chronic autoimmune, inflammatory disease that affects multiple body

systems.

What are the functions of the respiratory system?

gas exchange

2. Which system transports the gases exchanged in the respiratory system?

circulatory system

3. What are the basic processes involved with gas exchange?

a. ventilation

b. external respiration

c. internal respiration

4. What tissues and organs does the respiratory system consist of?

airway, supportive muscles, and specialized tissue layers

Which structures are a part of the upper respiratory system?

primary structures responsible for bringing air into the body and preparing it for the lungs

6. Which structures are a part of the lower respiratory system?

inside the chest, typically beginning just below the larynx or the vocal cords

7. What is the respiratory conducting system? What structures does it consist of?

cavities and hollow tubes

8. Know the structure and function and how each of the following are connected:

a. Nose, nasal cavity etc.

primary entry point for air

b. Pharynx

throat, shared passageway for both air and food/liquids

c. Larynx – especially the epiglottis

above windpipe, vocal cords. directs food into esophagus to prevent choking

d. Trachea

C shaped hyaline cartilage rings, ensures the airway stays open

e. Bronchi

divides directly into the lungs, distributes air evenly throughout the lungs

f. Lungs

houses internal network of the respiratory zone

g. Alveoli

sacs in lungs, gas exchange

9. How is sound or your voice produced?

respiration, vibration, resonance

10. How is blood supplied to the lung for exchange?

pulmonary circulation

11. What is patency of the respiratory system?

breathing passageways are open and clear allowing air to flow freely between outside and environment and the lungs

12. What is Boyle’s law?

pressure of a given mass of an ideal gas in inversely proportional to its volume, provided the temp. and amount of gas remain constant

13. Using proper terminology describe the process of inspiration including the structures and functions involved.

a. What happens during a quiet inhalation?

body actively conrtacts specific muscles to expand the chest cavity and draw air into the lungs

b. What happens during a forced inhalation?

body actively recruits extra muscles and deeper contractions to pull a much larger volume of air into the lungs than during quiet breathing

14. Using proper terminology describe the process of expiration including the structures and functions involved.

a. What happens during a quiet exhalation?

air leaves the lungs

b. What happens during a forced exhalation?

body actively uses muscle contraction to push air out of the lungs much faster and more completely than a normal passive breath out

15. What are the factors which affect pulmonary ventilation?

a. surface tension in the lungs especially the alveoli

b. elastic recoil

c. compliance

d. airway resistance/ obstruction

e. breathing patterns - textbook

16. What happens in premature babies who can’t produce enough surfactant?

neonatal respiratory distress syndrome(RDS) known as hyaline membrane disease

17. Name all of the lung volumes and capacities. Know how to read the graph.

A. Among the pulmonary air volumes exchanged in ventilation are tidal (500 ml), inspiratory reserve (3100 ml),

expiratory reserve (1200 ml), residual (1200 ml) and minimal volumes. Only about 350 ml of the tidal volume

actually reaches the alveoli, the other 150 ml remains in the airways as anatomic dead space.

B. Pulmonary lung capacities, the sum of two or more volumes, include inspiratory (3600 ml), functional

residual (2400 ml), vital (4800 ml), and total lung (6000 ml) capacities.

18. What is the partial pressure of a gas? (Dalton’s law in text)

pressure that a single gas in a mixture would exert if it alone occupied the entire volumee of the mixture at the same temp

19. How do gases diffuse based on partial pressures?

down a pressure gradient

20. How is external respiration accomplished?

C. External respiration results in the conversion of deoxygenated blood (depleted of O2 but higher in CO2 )

going to the lungs, to oxygenated blood (saturated with O2 and lower in CO2) returning from the lungs to

the heart.

D. External respiration depends on partial pressure differences, a large surface area for gas exchange, a small

diffusion distance across the alveolar-capillary (respiratory) membrane, and the solubility and molecular

weight of the gases.

21. How is internal respiration accomplished?

internal respiration is accomplished through simple diffusion

22. How much of the available oxygen actually enters during tissue cells at rest?

25% of the available oxygen

23. How is oxygen transported in the blood?

a. 1.5% dissolved in plasma

b. 98.5% carried with hemoglobin (Hb) as oxyhemoglobin

25. How does Hb bind and carry O2?

through a specialized molecular structure and a cooperative binding mechanism inside red blood cells

26. How is the partial pressure of O2 related to the percent saturation of Hb?

non linear

27. What additional factors affect Hb binding O2?

a. acid level

b. temperature

c. BPG

d. partial pressure of CO2

e. CO

f. Fetal hemoglobin differences

28. How is CO2 transported in blood?

a. 7% dissolved in plasma

b. 23% bound to Hb as carbaminohemoglobin

c. 70% as bicarbonate ions (where does this happen and how?)

transported back to the lungs

29. Which is more important for changing rate of breathing CO2 or O2 and why?

carbon dioxide

30. What controls respiration?

a. Respiratory centers of the brain – reticular formation of brain stem, medullary rhythmicity center, pontine

respiratory group.

b. Cortical influences

c. Chemoreceptors leading to chemical regulation

a. Central chemoreceptors (located in the medulla oblongata) and peripheral chemoreceptors

(located in the walls of systemic arteries) monitor levels of CO2 and O2 and provide input to

the respiratory center (Figure 23.25).

1) Central chemoreceptors respond to change in H+ concentration or PCO2, or both in

cerebrospinal fluid.

2) Peripheral chemoreceptors respond to changes in H+, PCO2, and PO2 in blood.

b. A slight increase in PCO2 (and thus H+), a condition called hypercapnia, stimulates central

chemoreceptors (Figure 23.26).

1) As a response to increased PCO2, increased H+ and decreased PO2, the inspiratory

area is activated and hyperventilation, rapid and deep breathing, occurs

2) If arterial PCO2 is lower than 40 mm Hg, a condition called hypocapnia, the

chemoreceptors are not stimulated and the inspiratory area sets its own pace until

CO2 accumulates and PCO2 rises to 40 mm Hg.

c. Severe deficiency of O2 depresses activity of the central chemoreceptors and respiratory

center.

d. Hypoxia refers to oxygen deficiency at the tissue level and is classified in several ways

(Clinical Connection).

1) Hypoxic hypoxia is caused by a low PO2 in arterial blood (high altitude, airway

obstruction, fluid in lungs).

2) In anemic hypoxia, there is too little functioning hemoglobin in the blood

(hemorrhage, anemia, carbon monoxide poisoning).

3) Stagnant hypoxia results from the inability of blood to carry oxygen to tissues fast

enough to sustain their needs (heart failure, circulatory shock).

4) In histotoxic hypoxia, the blood delivers adequate oxygen to the tissues, but the

tissues are unable to use it properly (cyanide poisoning).

5) Proprioceptors of joints and muscles activate the inspiratory center to increase

ventilation prior to exercise induced oxygen need.

6) The inflation (Hering-Breuer) reflex detects lung expansion with stretch receptors

and limits it depending on ventilatory need and prevention of damage.

7) Other influences include blood pressure, limbic system, temperature, pain,

stretching the anal sphincter, and irritation to the respiratory mucosa.

31. Describe how exercise effects the respiratory system?

increases the body's demand for oxygen and produces more CO

32. What are some additional influences on breathing?

physiological, neural, and environmental factors

33. What are some disorders of the respiratory system?

A. Asthma is characterized by the following: spasms of smooth muscle in bronchial tubes that result in partial

or complete closure of air passageways; inflammation; inflated alveoli; and excess mucus production. A

common triggering factor is allergy, but other factors include emotional upset, aspirin, exercise, and

breathing cold air or cigarette smoke.

B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a type of respiratory disorder characterized by chronic and

recurrent obstruction of air flow, which increases airway resistance.

1. The principal types of COPD are emphysema and chronic bronchitis.

2. Bronchitis is an inflammation of the bronchial tubes, the main symptom of which is a productive

(raising mucus or sputum) cough.

C. In bronchogenic carcinoma (lung cancer), bronchial epithelial cells are replaced by cancer cells after

constant irritation has disrupted the normal growth, division, and function of the epithelial cells. Airways

are often blocked and metastasis is very common. It is most commonly associated with smoking.

D. Pneumonia is an acute infection of the alveoli. The most common cause in the pneumococcal bacteria but

other microbes may be involved. Treatment involves antibiotics, bronchodilators, oxygen therapy, and

chest physiotherapy.

E. Tuberculosis (TB) is an inflammation of pleurae and lungs produced by the organism Mycobacterium

tuberculosis. It is communicable and destroys lung tissue, leaving nonfunctional fibrous tissue behind.

F. Coryza (common cold) is caused by viruses and usually is not accompanied by a fever, hereas influenza (flu)

is usually accompanied by a fever greater than 101°F.

G. Pulmonary edema refers to an abnormal accumulation of interstitial fluid in the interstitial spaces and

alveoli of the lungs. It may be pulmonary or cardiac in origin.

H. Cystic fibrosis is an inherited disease of secretory epithelia that affects the respiratory passageways,

pancreas, salivary glands, and sweat glands.

I. Asbestos-related diseases result from inhalation of asbestos particles.

J. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome is the sudden death of an apparently healthy infant, usually occurring during

sleep. The cause is unknown but may be associated with hypoxia, possibly resulting from sleeping position.

As such, it is recommended that infants sleep on their backs for the first six months.

K. Acute respiratory distress syndrome is a form of respiratory failure characterized by excessive leakiness of

respiratory membranes and severe hypoxia.