Chapter 21: Prokaryotes and Diseases

0.0(0)
Studied by 1 person
call kaiCall Kai
learnLearn
examPractice Test
spaced repetitionSpaced Repetition
heart puzzleMatch
flashcardsFlashcards
GameKnowt Play
Card Sorting

1/99

100 Terms

1
New cards

Pathogen

a disease-causing organism

2
New cards

Pathology (field)

the study of disease

3
New cards

Pathology (clinical definition)

the damage caused by a pathogen

4
New cards

Virulence

the degree of pathogenicity exhibited by a pathogen

5
New cards

Virulence Factor

a gene which contributes to virulence

6
New cards
<p>What layer is the RED</p>

What layer is the RED

Epidermis

7
New cards
<p>What layer is the ORANGE</p>

What layer is the ORANGE

Dermis

8
New cards
<p>What layer is the YELLOW</p>

What layer is the YELLOW

Subcutaneous

9
New cards

Perspiration and ______ contain nutrients for microbial growth.

Sebum

10
New cards

Salt inhibits microbes via ________

osmotic stress

11
New cards

Lysozyme damages ________

peptidoglycan

12
New cards

Antimicrobial peptides inhibit _________

defensins

13
New cards

Microbiota of the Skin include:

Fungi and Bacteria

14
New cards

What Bacteria is on the skin

mainly Gram-positive, salt-tolerant bacteria

15
New cards

Name bacteria on the skin

Staphylococci

Micrococci

Diphtheroids

16
New cards

opportunistic pathogen

these species normally do not cause disease and will only do so under certain conditions

17
New cards

Staphylococcus aureus has many ________ in its genome

virulence factors

18
New cards

Types of Staphylococcal Skin Infections: Folliculitis

infection of a hair follicle. Often presents as pimples

19
New cards

Types of Staphylococcal Skin Infections: Abscess

a localized accumulation of pus (immune cells that have died) at the site of an infection

20
New cards

Types of Staphylococcal Skin Infections: Impetigo

highly contagious skin infection which usually affects young children

21
New cards

___________ is an opportunistic pathogen present in water that is very resistant to antimicrobial control agents; the cause of otitis externa (swimmer’s ear)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

22
New cards

Nervous System Diseases: Meningitis

inflammation of meninges

23
New cards

Nervous System Diseases: Encephalitis

inflammation of the brain

24
New cards

Nervous System Diseases: Meningoencephalitis

inflammation of meninges and brain

25
New cards

Clostridium tetani is a Gram-_________, endospore-forming, obligate anaerobe

positive

26
New cards

Clostridium tetani causes _________ due to release of tetanospasmin (a neurotoxin) which blocks relaxation pathway in muscles

tetanus

27
New cards

Why does tetanus occur in deep wounds?

provide anaerobic conditions

28
New cards

Clostridium botulinum is Gram-positive, endospore-forming, obligate anaerobe that causes botulism due to intoxication of botulinal toxin which blocks release of neurotransmitter causing ___________

flaccid paralysis

29
New cards

Septicemia

Persistent pathogens or their toxins in blood

30
New cards

Sepsis

Systemic inflammatory response

31
New cards

Severe sepsis

Sepsis and decreased blood pressure

32
New cards

Septic shock

Sepsis and uncontrollable decreased blood pressure (leads to multi-organ system failure, and frequently death)

33
New cards

Anthrax is caused by what bacteria?

Bacillus anthracis

34
New cards

Describe Bacillus anthracis

Gram-positive, endospore-forming aerobic rod

35
New cards

Where are anthrax spores found?

In soil and can be carried by cattle and sheep

36
New cards

What are the 2 major forms of Anthrax?

Cutaneous Anthrax and Pulmonary Anthrax

37
New cards

What is the mode of action of Cutaneous Anthrax?

Endospores enter via a break in the skin

38
New cards

What is the mode of action of Pulmonary Anthrax?

Endospores are inhaled and enter the bloodstream to cause septicemia (PATIENT DIES OF SEPTIC SHOCK)

39
New cards

What is the mortality rate of cutaneous anthrax?

20% mortality rate without antibiotic therapy

40
New cards

What is the mortality rate of pulmonary anthrax?

Without antibiotic treatment the mortality rate is nearly 100%

41
New cards

What is the causative agent for the Plague?

Yersinia pestis

42
New cards

Is the bacteria that causes the plague gram-negative or gram-positive?

gram-negative rod

43
New cards

Which of the following is not a carrier of Yersinia pestis:

Donkey

44
New cards

What is the vector of the Plague? (hint: Xenopsylla cheopis)

Flea

45
New cards

Which of the following is not a form of the plague?

Exorthic

46
New cards

Which plague form is the most common?

Bubonic

47
New cards

What are “bubeos” ? (a common symptom of the bubonic plague)

severely enlarged lymph nodes

48
New cards

What is the mode of action in pneumonic plague?

Bacteria entered via the lungs and easily pass to the bloodstream to produce widespread septicemia & septic shock

49
New cards

The causative agent for Lyme disease:

Borrelia burgdorferi

50
New cards

Describe the shape of Borrelia burgdorferi (spirochete)

long, spiral‑shaped, Gram‑negative bacterium

51
New cards

What is the vector of Lyme Disease

Blacklegged Ticks

52
New cards

Which of the following is not a phase of Lyme Disease:

Hair loss, or thinning hair

53
New cards

What is the cause of Pharyngitis (Strep Throat)

Streptococcus pyogenes

54
New cards

Otitis Media

Middle Ear Infection

55
New cards

What cause of Otitis Media only makes up 35% of cases?

S. pneumoniae

56
New cards

What cause of Otitis Media only makes up 20-30% of cases?

H. influenzae

57
New cards

What cause of Otitis Media only makes up 10-15% of cases?

M. catarrhalis

58
New cards

What cause of Otitis Media only makes up 8-10% of cases?

S. pyogenes

59
New cards

What cause of Otitis Media only makes up 1-2% of cases?

S. aureus

60
New cards

Pertussis

Whooping cough

61
New cards

What causes Whooping Cough?

Bordetella pertussis

62
New cards

Describe Bordetella pertussis

Gram-negative coccobacillus

63
New cards

What vaccine prevents Whooping Cough?

DTaP

64
New cards

What causes Tuberculosis? (___________ tuberculosis)

Mycobacterium

65
New cards

Describe Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Acid-fast rod

66
New cards

What is wrong with the tuberculosis vaccine?

its efficacy is inconsistent

67
New cards

What are the two common causative microorganisms for Pneumonia?

Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae

68
New cards

What is the mode of action of Pneumonia?

The bronchial tubes or alveoli are infected which causes fluid accumulation in the lung. This decreases the efficacy of oxygen exchange in the lung (difficulty breathing)

69
New cards

Which of the following is not a defense of the GI system?

Archillae Peptimonis

70
New cards

Dental plaque is a _______

biofilm

71
New cards

Many of our oral bacteria are _____________, and the acidic waste products of fermentation can eat away at enamel

acid fermenters

72
New cards

Dental Caries

Cavities

73
New cards

what causes cavities?

Streptococcus mutans

74
New cards

Porphyromonas gingivitis

causes gingivitis

75
New cards

Periodontitis

a chronic condition in which periodontal pockets form, and bacterial toxins actually degrade the gingiva (gums) and bone supporting the teeth

76
New cards

Name the types of Ulcers:

Infectious and non-infectious

77
New cards

What is the cause of infectious ulcers?

Helicobacter pylori

78
New cards

Ulcers are treatable by antiobiotics

True

79
New cards

The formation of ulcers: the mucus layer protects stomach from activity of ____________. Inflammation caused by infection interrupts mucus formation & leaves the stomach sensitive to its own acid

gastric acids

80
New cards

What causes cholera?

Vibrio cholerae

81
New cards

Cholera Toxin induces intestinal cells to shed ______________ resulting in very severe diarrhea

electrolytes and water

82
New cards

What is the cause of death for people with cholera?

Dehydration

83
New cards

Urinary system infection is NOT prevented by:

Being pure of heart

84
New cards

Urinary bladder and upper urinary tract are _______

Sterile

85
New cards

The most common causative agent for UTIs is _____________ which has been transferred from the rectum

Escherichia coli

86
New cards

Urethritis

An inflammation of the urethra (least severe)

87
New cards

Cystitis

An inflammation of the urinary bladder

88
New cards

Pyelonephritis

An inflammation of one or both kidneys (most severe)

89
New cards

What causes Gonorrhea

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

90
New cards

What causes Syphilis?

Treponema pallidum

91
New cards

Describe Treponema Pallidum (spirochete)

long, spiral‑shaped, Gram‑negative bacterium, slow growth cycle

92
New cards

What is the mode of action for syphilis

Invades mucosa or through skin breaks Treponema Pallidum

93
New cards

What are the stages of Syphilis?

Primary, Secondary, Latent, and Tertiary

94
New cards

Describe the Primary stage of syphilis:

chancre at site of infection

95
New cards

Describe the Secondary stage of syphilis:

skin and mucosal rashes

96
New cards

Describe the Latent stage of syphilis:

no symptoms

97
New cards

Describe the Tertiary stage of syphilis:

gummas (deep lesions on many organs – rarely seen these days due to antibiotic therapy)

98
New cards

explain how syphilis can be congenital?

transmitted to the fetus in the womb during latent phase. Prevents normal neurological development. (If mother is in another stage the likely result is stillbirth)

99
New cards

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease is usually:

Neisseria gonorrhoeae and/or Chlamydia trachomatis

100
New cards

Salpingitis

(infection of uterine tubes) is the most serious form and can cause scarring which results in sterility (or life- threatening ectopic (tubal) pregnancy)