Pharm 1 Lecture 12: Antibiotics PPT 2

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1
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What is the mechanism of action of beta lactams and Vancomycin?

inhibit bacterial wall synthesis

2
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What is the mechanism of action of sulfonamides and trimethoprim?

inhibit folate synthesis

3
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What is the mechanism of action of macrolides and tetracyclines?

inhibit bacterial protein synthesis

4
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What is the mechanism of action of aminoglycosides, chloramphenicol, and clindamycin?

inhibit bacterial protein synthesis

5
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What is the mechanism of action of Isoniazid?

inhibit bacterial cell membrane structure and function

6
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What is the mechanism of action of Fluoroquinolones and Rifampin?

inhibit bacterial nucleic acid function or synthesis

7
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TMP-SMX (Bactrim) (oral, IV) MOA

 both antifolates

 Sulfamethoxazole competes with PABA, inhibiting bacterial synthesis
of dihydrofolic acid
 Trimethoprim binds and reversibly inhibits dihydrofolate reductase,
blocking production of tetrahydrofolic acid from dihydrofolic acid
 Synergistic

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first line for pneumocystitis jirovecii pneumonia (PJP) and prostatis

TMP-SMX

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pneumocystitis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP or PJP PJP)

  • atypical fungus that synthesizes its own folic acid to survive

  • opportunistic infection in patients with HIV or AIDs (immunocomp)

  • Tx and prophylaxis: TMP-SMX (oral, IV) (21 days)


10
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What determines pediatric dosing for TMP-SMX?

trimethoprim

11
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Renal adjustment for TMP-SMX

Renally dosed if CrCL < 30

12
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What are the most common adverse effects of Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole? (oral, IV)

skin rash

bone marrow suppression

↑ serum creatinine

hyperkalemia

13
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Do you give TMP-SMX for purulent or nonpurulent cellulitis (caused by MRSA)?

purulent cellulitis

14
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Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole (oral, IV) indications

uncomplicated UTI: 1st line

skin: PURULENT cellulitis (MRSA), abscess

bacterial prostatitis

pneumocystitis jirovecii pneumonia (PJP)

15
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In which patients should you AVOID using trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole? (oral, IV)

CI: folic acid deficiency, G6PD deficiency

relative CI: pregnancy

16
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TMP-SMX adult dosing (oral, IV)

Trimethoprim 160mg - Sulfamethoxazole 800mg

17
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Which antibiotics inhibit nucleic acid function or synthesis?

Fluoroquinolones

Rifampin

18
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fluoroquinolones MOA

Bactericidal: blocks bacterial DNA synthesis causing bacterial cell death

19
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Ciprofloxacin (oral, IV, opthalamic drops) mainly covers WHAT pathogens?

gram-negative, Pseudonomas, enteric GNRs (from the gut)

no S. pneumoniae (not a respiratory fluoroquinolone)

20
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Levofloxacin (oral, IV, opthalamic drops) mainly covers WHAT pathogens?

Pseudonomas, typicals, atypicals, enteric GNRs

21
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Which 2 fluoroquinolones are respiratory (cover CAP: typicals and atypicals)?

Levofloxacin and Moxifloxacin

22
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Which 2 fluoroquinolones cover Pseudonomas

Ciprofloxacin (stronger) and Levofloxacin

23
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Moxifloxacin (oral, IV, opthalamic drops) mainly covers WHAT pathogens?

gram positive

and anaerobes

and atypicals

no Pseudonomas

do not treat UTIs

24
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Moxifloxacin should NOT be used to treat what?

UTIs

25
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Ciprofloxacin should NOT be used to treat what?

respiratory

26
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Which fluoroquinolone is preferred for GI infections?

Ciprofloxacin

27
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What are the common adverse effects of Fluoroquinolones?

C. diff

CNS effects / peripheral neuropathy

QTc prolongation

Aortic aneurysm

tendinopathy

photosensitivity

MG exacerbation

do not combine w/ steroids

28
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Which fluoroquinolone covers Pseudonomas best? (e.g., swimmers ear or stepping on a nail)

Ciprofloxacin

29
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Fluoroquinolones has drug interactions with what?

metal cations!!!!

calcium

iron

magnesium

aluminum

30
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In what populations should Fluoroquinolones be avoided?

athletes

children

elderly

homeless

pregnancy/breastfeeding

MG

using steroids

31
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what covers typical organisms for CAP?

 Streptococcus Pneumoniae
 Haemophilus influenzae
 Moraxella catarrhalis

beta-lactams:

Amoxicillin
Augmentin
Cefdinir (3rd generation ceph)

32
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what covers atypical organisms for CAP?

 Mycoplasma pneumoniae
 Chlamydophila pneumoniae
 Legionella

Azithromycin
Clarithromycin

Doxycycline

33
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Ofloxacin is indicated in what infections?

pneumonia

prostatitis

STIs

uncomplicated skin

UTIs

34
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What infections can Metronidazole (Flagyl) (PO, IV, topical) be used to treat?

MOA: DNA-damaging

Anaerobes
• C. difficile
• Bacteroides fragilis
• Gardnerella vaginalis
• Peptostreptococcus

Protozoans
• Trichomonas vaginalis
• Giardia lamblia

• Bacterial Vaginosis
• Trichomoniasis (STI)
• C. difficile diarrhea (alternate agent)
• Rosacea (topical)

  • H. pylori infections (in combo with other drugs)
    • Amebiasis, intestinal (dysentery)
    • Intra-abdominal infections


35
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Can you prescribe Doxy in pregnancy for Chlamydia?

no, use Azithromycin instead

36
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What are the most common adverse effects of Metronidazole (Flagyl) (PO / IV / topical)?

metallic taste

Disulfiram-like reaction (when combined with alcohol)

CNS effects

37
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What should you AVOID while taking Metronidazole (Flagyl)? (PO / IV / topical)

ALCOHOL USE

within 3 days of discontinuation

38
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Metronidazole (Flagyl) (PO / IV / topical) inhibits the metabolism of what drug?

Warfarin is inhibited by what antibiotic?

39
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Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid)

one indication: uncomplicated UTI

BID dosing

avoid in CKD

40
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What are the causative organisms and pharmacologic treatments for purulent vs. nonpurulent cellulitis?


Nonpurulent cellulitis:
- Organisms: Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Strep) and MSSA
- Treatment: Cephalexin, Dicloxacillin

Purulent cellulitis:
- Organisms: Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA, MRSA)
- Treatment: TMP-SMX, Doxycycline, or Clindamycin (I&D if abscess is present)

41
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Erysipelas

  • Superficial form of cellulitis with dermal lymphatic involvement

  • usually GAS / strep pyogenes

  • Tx: Amoxicillin, Cephalexin


42
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most likely bacteria causing abscess

MRSA

43
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Group B strep Prevention of Neonatal Sepsis treatment?

IV Penicillin G (narrower spectrum)

44
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impetigo Tx

  • cover S. aureus and S. pyogenes

  • Topical: Mupirocin (Bactroban)

  • oral (for widespread infection): Cephalexin or Dicloxacillin (unless MRSA suspected)


45
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What is the most common adverse effects of Rifampin?

Hepatitis

46
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What is Isoniazid used to treat?

SPECIFICALLY tuberculosis

47
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Bacitracin

  • prophylaxis in superficial burn wounds

  • can cause allergic contact dermatitis


48
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Neomycin (an ingredient in Neosporin) can cause

allergic contact dermatitis can be caused by ___

49
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first line for AOE

Ciprofloxacin or Ofloxacin (topical)
± steroid

50
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first line for AOM (with or without perforation of TM)

Amoxicillin (high-dose) or Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin)
(if AOM refractory to trx, or recurrent AOM)

51
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first line for bacterial conjunctivitis

Ciprofloxacin or Ofloxacin

52
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first line for CAP w/o comorbidities

Amoxicillin
or
Amoxicillin + macrolide

53
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first line for CAP w/ comorbidities (Empiric coverage for
“Typical” and “Atypical” organisms)

Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin)
or
Cephalosporin
PLUS
Doxycycline
or
Azithromycin

54
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first line for atypical pneumonia

Doxycycline or Azithromycin

55
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first line for animal bites

Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin)

56
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first line for uncomplicated UTI

Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid)
or
TMP-SMX (Bactrim)
or
Fosfomycin single dose
or
Pivmecillinam
(indicated for women only)

57
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first line for Acute Pyelonephritis (subtype of complicated UTI: flank pain/CVA tenderness + febrile)

Ciprofloxacin or Levofloxacin
or
TMP-SMX (if susceptible)
or
2nd vs 3rd gen cephalosporins

58
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first line for C. difficile diarrhea

Fidaxomicin (Dificid) BID x 10 days
or
Oral vancomycin QID x 10 days

59
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abx coverage

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60
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Antibiotics with anaerobe coverage

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61
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What are the adverse effects associated with Isoniazid?

hepatitis!!!

peripheral neuropathy

CNS effects

62
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Isoniazid inhibits the metabolism of what drugs?

seizure drugs

63
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What 4 drugs are used to treat Tuberculosis and AE of each?

RIPE:

Rifampin or Rifapentine

• Red-orange urine/tears
• Hepatitis
• GI upset
• Drug-drug interactions

Isoniazide

• Hepatitis
• Peripheral neuropathy (Co-administer with vitamin B6)

Pyrazinamide

• Hepatitis
• Hyperuricemia

Ethambutol

• Red-green colorblindness
• Optic neuritis with blurred vision

64
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What 3 medications are used to treat Leprosy?

Dapsone

Clofazimine

Rifampin

65
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Dapsone can also be used to treat WHAT?

PJP!!!!

66
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What adverse effects are associated with Dapsone?

Hemolysis!!!

methemoglobinemia

peripheral neuropathy

67
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What patients should NOT take Dapsone?

ppl w G6PD deficiencies

68
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Dapsone is absorbed WHERE?

GI tract!!!

↓

Reaches high doses in the skin

↓

eliminated in urine

69
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Clofazimine can protect against WHAT?

erythema nodosum leprosum

70
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Clofazimine can also be used to treat WHAT?

tb

non-tb mycobacteria

71
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What should patients be advised of before taking Clofazimine?

it'll turn their skin pink and then scary black

72
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What adverse effect frequently occurs with the use of topical bacitracin?

allergic contact dermatitis

73
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Polysporin is a combination of what?

Bacitracin and Polymyxin B

74
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Neosporin is a combination of what?

Bacitracin, Polymyxin B, and Neomycin

75
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What does Bacitracin do in the nose holes?

decrease colonization of staph

76
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Mupirocin is effective at treating what?

impetigo!!!!!!

caused by staph or strep

77
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What does Mupirocin do to the nose holes?

irritate the mucous membranes

78
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Bacitracin is effective against what organisms?

gram-positive!!!!

and anaerobic thangs

79
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Mupirocin is effective against what organisms?

gram-positive aerobes!!!

80
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Polymyxin B sulfate is effective against what organisms?

gram-negative!!!!

81
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Polymyxin B Sulfate can cause WHAT when applied to open wounds?

neurotoxicity and nephrotoxicity

82
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Neomycin and Gentamicin

AE: allergic contact dermatitis

treat gram negative