PHARM CARDIAC

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Last updated 11:26 PM on 10/6/26
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141 Terms

1
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In what medication class should you avoid abrupt discontinuation because they can precipitate exacerbation of angina, myocardial infarction, or ventricle arrhythmia?

Beta-blockers

2
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Cardioselective receptors

Beta-1 receptors

3
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What are the effects related primarily to beta-1 blockade?

  • Decreased heart rate (neg chronotropic)

  • Decreased contractility (neg inotropic)

  • Decrease myocardial oxygen demand

  • Anti-arrhythmic effects


4
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What are effects of the beta-2 blockade?

Bronchoconstriction

5
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What are the nonselective beta-blockers?

  • Propranolol

  • Nadolol

  • Pindolol

  • Sotalol

  • Timolol

  • Carvedilol

  • Labetalol


6
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What are the cardioselective beta blockers?

  • Metoprolol

  • Atenolol

  • Nebivolol

  • Bisoprolol

  • Acebutolol

  • Betaxolol

  • Esmolol


7
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What medications?:

  • Cardioselective

  • Low doses → cardioselectively → minimize bronchoconstriction


  • Metoprolol

  • Atenolol


8
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What is metoprolol available as?

  • Metoprolol tartrate → regulate release formulation (IV and PO)

  • Metoprolol succinate → extended release formulation (PO)


9
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What is atenolol available as?

  • PO tablets

  • Boxed warning: avoid abrupt cessation


10
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What medication?:

  • Selective beta-1 blocker

  • Controls BP or heart rhythm in critically ill patients or those undergoing surgical or diagnostic procedures

  • Only available IV


Esmolol

11
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What medication?:

  • Selective beta-1 blocker

  • Also increases release of nitric oxide from endothelial cells → causes vasodilation


Nebivolol

12
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What are the uses of selective beta-1 blockers?

  • Hypertensive patients with pulmonary impairment

  • Chronic stable angina

  • Bisoprolol and metoprolol → chronic heart failure


13
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What medications?:

  • ISA (intrinsic sympathomimetic activity)

    • Able to stimulate beta-receptor they bind to; inhibit stimulation by more potent endogenous catecholamine (epi and NE)

  • Designed to decrease side effects and improve tolerability


  • Acebutolol

  • Pindolol


14
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What medications?:

  • Side effects:

    • Bronchoconstriction (nonselective)

    • Bradycardia

    • Arrhythmias

    • Lethargy

    • Disturbance in glucose metabolism

    • Fatigue

    • Insomnia

    • Sexual dysfunction

    • Hypotension


Beta-blockers

15
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What are the beta-blockers with partial agonist activity?

  • Acebutolol

  • Pindolol


16
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What are the beta-blockers at both alpha and beta receptors?

  • Labetalol

  • Carvedilol


17
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What medications?:

  • Beta-blocking and vasodilating effects

  • Nonselective beta-blockers with alpha-1 blocking action

  • Reduce BP by causing peripheral vasodilation


  • Labetalol

  • Carvedilol


18
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What beta-blocker also lowers lipid peroxidation and vascular wall thickening which is useful in heart failure?

Carvedilol

19
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What are the uses of labetalol and carvedilol?

  • HTN

  • Heart failure


20
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Adverse effects of labetalol and carvedilol?

  • Orthostatic hypotension (alpha-1 blockage)

  • Dizziness


21
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What are the effects of beta-blockers in MI?

  • Reduce myocardial oxygen demand

  • Reduce ventricular arrhythmias

  • Reduce mortality rates after MI


22
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What medications?:

  • Prevent calcium from entering cells of heart and arteries → decreases BP

  • Relaxation of blood vessels → vasodilation

  • Reduce heart rate, contractility (negative inotropes), and oxygen requirements


Calcium channel blockers

23
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What medications?:

  • Bind to L-type channels in cardiac myocytes, cardiac nodal tissues, vascular smooth muscle cells → dec. calcium entry into these cells

  • Reduces automaticity (neg. chronotropic effect)

  • Dec. myocardial contractility (negative inotropic effects)

  • Decrease atrioventricular node conduction velocity (negative dromotropic effect)

  • Smooth muscle relaxation → system vasodilation

  • Decrease cardiac afterload → decrease in blood pressure (effective in HTN)


Calcium channel blockers

24
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What are the dihydropyridines?

  • Nifedipine- PO

  • Amlodipine- PO

  • Felodipine- PO

  • Isradipine- PO

  • Nicardipine- PO/IV

  • Nisoldipine- PO

  • Clevidipine- IV


25
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What are the nondihydropyridines?

  • Verapamil- PO/IV

  • Diltiazem- PO/IV


26
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What medications?:

  • Affect calcium channels in blood and heart

  • Do not cause reflex tachycardia


Nondihydropyridines

27
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What medication?:

  • ER and regular release formulations

  • Effects on both cardiac and vascular smooth muscle cells

  • Uses:

    • Angina

    • Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias

    • Migraines and cluster headaches


Verapamil

28
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What medication?:

  • ER and regular release formulations

  • Effects on both cardiac and vascular smooth muscle

  • Less negative inotropic effects

  • Favorable AE profile


Diltiazem

29
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What medications?:

  • Greater affinity for vascular calcium channels than channels in the heart

  • Can lead to reflex tachycardia

  • HTN treatment

  • Fewer interactions with other cardiovascular drugs


Dihydropyridines

30
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What medications?:

  • Uses:

    • Angina

    • A-fib → diltiazem, verapamil


Calcium channel blockers

31
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What medication?:

  • AE:

    • Dose dependent first-degree atrioventricular block

    • Dose dependent constipation


Verapamil

32
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What medications?:

  • Dose dependent constipation

  • Avoid in hear failure

  • Avoid in atrioventricular block


Verapamil and diltiazem

33
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What medications?:

  • Constipation

  • Dizziness

  • HA

  • Fatigue

  • Peripheral edema

  • Gingival hyperplasia

  • Reflex tachycardia

  • Flushing d/t vasodilation


Dihydropyridines

34
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What medications?:

  • Decrease HR and contractility → reduces myocardial oxygen demand


Beta-blockers

35
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What medications?:

  • Reduce systemic vascular resistance (SVR)

  • Improve coronary and myocardial blood flow

  • Decrease myocardial contractility


Calcium channel blockers

36
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What medications?:

  • Venous dilation → decreases preload and oxygen demand by heart


Organic nitrates

37
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What medications?:

  • Reduces late sodium current → decreases intracellular sodium concentration and calcium overload → improves diastolic function


Sodium channel blockers

38
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What medications prevent thrombus formation?

Antiplatelet medications

39
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What medications?:

  • Decrease oxygen demands → decreased HR, contractility, CO, BP

  • Decrease myocardial oxygen demand during exertion and at rest

  • Reduce both frequency and severity of angina attacks

  • Avoid with ISA (pindolol, acebutolol)

  • Taper dose to avoid rebound angina, MI, HTN


Beta-blockers

40
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Hypoxia causes membrane depolarization which increases what during ischemia?

Calcium influx

41
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What medications block calcium influx into cardiac and smooth muscle cells?

Calcium channel blockers

42
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How do CCB’s reduce oxygen demand?

  • Decreasing HR

  • Decreasing contractility

  • Decreasing afterload


43
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How do CCB’s increase oxygen supply?

Vasodilation of coronary arteries

44
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In effort-induced angina, CCB’s reduce vascular resistance which does what?

Decreases afterload

45
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How do CCB’s work in vasospastic angina?

Relax coronary arteries

46
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What medications?:

  • Block L-type calcium channels in cardiac and vascular smooth muscle

  • Decrease oxygen demand by:

    • Decrease HR

    • Decrease contractility

    • Decrease afterload

  • Increase coronary blood flow


Calcium channel blockers

47
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What medications?:

  • Greater affinity for vascular calcium channels than channels in the heart → greater effect on vasodilation, less effect on heart function


Dihydropyridines

48
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What medication?:

  • Dihydropyridine

  • Vasodilatory effect is useful in variant angina


Amlodipine

49
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What medication?:

  • Nondihydropyridine

  • Slows AV conduction

  • Lowers HR, contractility, BP, and oxygen demand

  • CI in preexisting depressed cardiac function or AV conduction abnormalities


Verapamil

50
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What medication?:

  • Nondihydropyridine

  • Slows AV conduction

  • Decrease firing rate of sinus node pacemaker

  • Coronary artery vasodilator


Diltiazem

51
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What medication?:

  • Most therapeutic effects caused by venodilation, especially at low doses

  • Venodilation reduces preload

  • Decreased preload → decreases force of contraction during systole and decreased work by heart

  • Decreased work → decreased oxygen demand

  • Dilate coronary vasculature → increases blood supply to cardiac muscle


Nitrates

52
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What medications?:

  • Onset of action varies

    • 1 minute for NTG

    • 30 minutes for isosorbide mononitrate


Nitrates

53
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What medications?:

  • Tablet or spray formulation

  • DOC for prompt relief of angina attack caused by exercise or emotional stress

  • One SL tablet at onset of angina, may repeat


Sublingual NTG

54
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What nitrate?:

  • Administered SL or via patch/ointment to avoid first pass metabolism


NTG

55
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What nitrate?:

  • Improved bioavailability and long DOA → stable against hepatic breakdown


Isosorbide mononitrate

56
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What nitrate?:

  • De-nitrated to two mononitrates


Isosorbide dinitrate

57
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What formulations of nitrates are used for prolonged prophylaxis to decerase angina frequency?

Patch or slow-release

58
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Why should you take caution with patch or slow-release formulations of nitrates?

Tolerance develops with continual use

59
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What medications?:

  • AE:

    • HA

    • High doses → postural hypotension, facial flushing, tachycardia

    • Avoid using with phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors (sildenafil) → hypotension

    • Tolerance develops


Nitrates

60
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Pathophysiology of sodium channel inactivation failure and ischemia

  • Myocardial ischemia inhibits inactivation of cardiac sodium channels

  • Increase in sodium influx and intracellular sodium concentration → increase in intracellular calcium → contributes to pathogenesis of abnormalities in ischemic heart


61
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What medication?:

  • Inhibits late phase sodium current

  • Intracellular sodium reduced

  • Calcium overload reduced

  • Improves oxygen supply and demand


Ranolazine

62
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What medication?:

  • Antianginal effects less in women than men

  • Extensive metabolism by 3A enzymes and 2D6

  • Substrate of P glycoprotein

  • Avoid with drugs that cause QT prolongation


Ranolazine

63
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Rapid, temporary change in electrical potential across heart muscle cell membrane that triggers muscle contraction

Action potential

64
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Time during which cardiac muscle cell cannot respond to new stimulus

Effective refractory period

65
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Ability to spontaneously depolarize and generate an action potential

Automaticity

66
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Refers to phenomenon where a drug’s effect is more pronounced at higher HR → efficacy of these agents increases as HR increases → more effective arrhythmia control during episodes of tachycardia

Use-dependence/state-dependence

67
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What are the class 1 antiarrhythmics?

  • Sodium channel blockers

  • 1A

    • Diospyramide

    • Quinidine

    • Procainamide

  • 1B

    • Lidocaine

    • Mexiletine

  • 1C

    • Flecainide

    • Propafenone


68
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What are the class 2 antiarrhythmics?

Beta-blockers

69
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What are the class 3 antiarrhythmics?

  • Potassium channel blockers

    • Amiodarone

    • Dronedarone

    • Sotalol

    • Dofetilide

    • Ibutilide


70
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What are the class 4 antiarrhythmics?

  • Calcium channel blockers

    • Verapamil

    • Diltiazem


71
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What are the miscellaneous antiarrhythmics?

  • Digoxin

  • Adenosine

  • Magnesium sulfate

  • Ranolazine


72
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What drives depolarization?

Sodium influx

73
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What are the phases of cardiac repolarization?

  • Phase 0: Rapid sodium influx through open fast sodium channels

  • Phase 1: Transient potassium channels open and potassium efflux returns TMP to 0mV

  • Phase 2: Influx of calcium through L-type channels is electrically balanced by potassium efflux through delayed rectifier potassium channels

  • Phase 3: Calcium channels close but delayed rectifier potassium channels remain open and return TMP to -90mV

  • Phase 4: Sodium, calcium channels closed, open potassium rectifier channels keep TMP stable at -90mV


74
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What medications?:

  • Modify impulse generation and conduction

  • Also have proarrhythmic actions

  • Inhibiting potassium channels widens action potential → prolongs QT interval

    • Torsades de pointes


Antiarrhythmics

75
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What are the classifications of Class 1 antiarrhythmics?

  • Sodium channel blockers

  • 1A: prolongs action potential

  • 1B: shortens action potential

  • 1C: minimal effect on action potential duration


76
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Where do class 1 antiarrthymics work?

Phase 0

77
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Where do class 2 antiarrthymics (beta-blockers) work?

Phase 4

78
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Where do class 3 (potassium channel blockers) work?

Phase 3

79
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Where do class 4 (CCB’s) antiarrhythmics work?

Phase 2

80
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What medications?:

  • Block voltage-sensitive sodium channels in non-nodal tissue (myocytes of atria, ventricles, His-Purkinje system)

  • Bind more rapidly to open or inactivated sodium channels (phase 0)

  • “Use dependence” or “state dependence”

  • Work more in tissues that are frequently depolarizing

    • B/c block cells that discharge at unusually high frequency, will not interfere with normal beating of heart


Class 1 antiarrhythmic

81
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What medications?:

  • Slow or block phase 0

    • Decrease slope of phase 0 → dec. in amplitude of action potential

    • Dec. velocity of action potential transmission in heart

  • Have varying effects on phase 3 of action potential

  • Affect atria, purkinje, ventricular tissues


Class 1 antiarrhythmic

82
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What do class 1 antiarrhythmics have effect on?

  • Phase 0

  • Duration of action potential

  • Effective refractory period


83
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What are the class 1A antiarrhythmic medications?

  • Disopyramide

  • Quinidine

  • Procainamide


84
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What medications?:

  • Block influx of sodium → slow or block phase 0

  • Potassium channel effects:

    • Block potassium channels → decreases potassium efflux → slow repolarization

    • Causes increase in ERP and action potential duration → QT prolongation

  • Prolong AP

  • Increases ERP


Class 1A antiarrhythmics

85
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What class 1 antiarrhythmic has alpha blocking and anticholinergic actions?

Quinidine

86
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What class 1 antiarrhythmic has less anticholinergic activity?

Procainamide

87
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What class 1 antiarrhythmic has more anticholinergic activity, greater negative inotropic effects, and peripheral vasoconstriction?

Disopyramide

88
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What class 1 antiarrhythmics lack alpha blocking abilities?

  • Procainamide

  • Disopyramide


89
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What class 1 antiarrhythmic is used in arrhythmias: atrial, AV junctional, and ventricular tachyarrhythmias?

Quinidine

90
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What class 1 antiarrhythmic is only available for parenteral admin and is used in acute atrial and ventricular arrhythmias?

Procainamide

91
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What class 1 antiarrhythmic is used for ventricular arrhythmias and rhythm control in atrial fibrillation (off label)?

Disopyramide

92
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What medications?:

  • AE:

    • Proarrhythmic

      • Prolong QT interval → torsades de pointes

    • Quinidine, disopyramide → caution with potent 3A4 inhibitors

    • Not used often d/t proarrhythmic and systemic toxicity


Class 1A antiarrhythmics

93
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What medication?:

  • AE

    • Highest proarrhythmic effects in its class

    • Large doses → induce symptoms of cinchonism (HA, tinnitus)

    • Inhibitors of 2D6 and P-glycoprotein

    • Boxed warning: increased mortality in treatment on non-threatening arrhythmias, inc. risk of structural heart disease


Quinidine

94
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What medication?:

  • AE:

    • Hypotension

    • Agranulocytosis, pancyropenia d/t bone marrow suppression → reversible drug-induced lupus (dose and duration-related)

    • Boxed warning: positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) test with or without symptoms of lupus erythematosus associated with prolonged use, proarrhythmic effects (restrict to life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias), blood dyscrasias


Procainamide

95
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What medication?:

  • AE:

    • Most anticholinergic AE

    • Boxed warning: Increased mortality in asymptomatic non-threatening ventricular arrhythmias with MI 6 days → 2 years prior; restrict use to life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias


Disopyramide

96
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What medications?:

  • General precautions/contraindications

    • Use caution or avoid in atherosclerotic heart disease or systolic heart failure

    • 2nd and 3rd degree heart block

    • Cardiogenic shock

    • Myasthenia gravias

    • Other meds that prolong QT interval (fluoroquinolone antibiotics)


Class 1A antiarrhythmics

97
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What medications?:

  • Lidocaine

  • Mexiletine

  • Rapid association and dissociation with sodium channels

  • Treatment of ventricular arrhythmias


Class 1B antiarrhythmics

98
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What medications?:

  • Block sodium channels in phase 0

  • Shorten phase 3 depolarization; dec. AP duration

  • Shorten AP

  • Normal or decreased ERP

  • Little to no negative inotropic effects


Class 1B antiarrhythmics

99
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What medications?:

  • Post-myocardial infarction and other ventricular arrhythmias

  • Digitalis-induced arrhythmias


Class 1B antiarrhythmics

100
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What medication?:

  • Class 1B

  • IV administration

  • Alternative to amiodarone for ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia

  • Combination with amiodarone for VT storm


Lidocaine