Aetiology and Genetics of Haematological Malignancies

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Comprehensive fill-in-the-blank practice flashcards covering haematological malignancies, haematopoiesis, cell cycle checkpoints, oncogenes, tumour suppressor pathways, and epigenetic modifications.

Last updated 3:47 PM on 10/12/26
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38 Terms

1
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Haematological malignancies are defined as clonal disorders of haemopoietic __________ or progenitor cells.

stem

2
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Unlike solid tumours that typically present as a localized mass, haemopoietic neoplasms arise from blood-forming and lymphoid tissues and frequently exhibit __________ disease at presentation.

widespread

3
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In classical hematology, haematological malignancies are broadly classified into three major groups: leukemias, lymphomas, and __________.

multiple myeloma

4
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William Dameshek introduced the classification of myeloproliferative disorders in 1951, but the terminology was later altered after Nowell and Hungerford discovered the __________ chromosome.

Philadelphia

5
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In healthy adults, normal haematopoiesis produces approximately __________ to __________ blood cells daily to replace senescent cells.

101110^{11} to 101210^{12}

6
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The property of haematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) to reside within specialised bone marrow niches is termed __________.

homing

7
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During normal haemopoiesis, the primary function of Stem Cell Factor (SCF) is to promote __________.

stem cell survival

8
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In the regulation of haemopoiesis, interleukin-3 (IL-3) primarily modulates __________.

early progenitor proliferation

9
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While G-CSF selectively stimulates neutrophil production, GM-CSF stimulates the production of __________.

granulocytes and monocytes

10
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In the cell cycle, the resting phase in which cells remain alive but are not dividing is designated as the __________.

G0 phaseG_0\text{ phase}

11
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Progression through the S phase of the cell cycle is driven by the __________ complex.

Cyclin A-CDK2

12
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Progression through the M phase of the cell cycle is driven by the cyclin-CDK complex __________.

Cyclin B-CDK1 (MPF)

13
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At the G2 checkpoint, sensors ATM, ATR, Chk1, and Chk2 signal effectors p53 and p21 to target __________ inhibition, keeping CDK1 inactive.

Cdc25C

14
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Negative regulators of the G1 checkpoint (Restriction Point) include p16INK4ap16^{\text{INK4a}}, p21, p27, and __________.

p57

15
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The oncogene BCR-ABL1 is classically associated with __________.

Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia

16
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The oncogene MYC is typically associated with Burkitt Lymphoma, whereas JAK2 mutations are associated with __________.

Myeloproliferative Neoplasms

17
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The tumour suppressor gene TP53 is widely referred to as the '__________'.

guardian of the genome

18
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Histone acetyltransferases (HATs) catalyze the transfer of an acetyl group from acetyl-CoA to __________ residues on histone proteins.

lysine

19
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Histone acetylation neutralizes the positive charge on lysine residues, relaxing chromatin into transcriptionally active __________.

euchromatin

20
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Histone Deacetylases (HDACs) remove acetyl groups from histones, restoring positive charges and resulting in condensed chromatin and __________.

gene silencing

21
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In Acute Myeloid Leukaemia, the fusion protein RUNX1::RUNX1T1 (AML1-ETO) recruits HDACs to promoter regions, causing a maturation arrest and accumulation of __________.

myeloblasts

22
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In acute promyelocytic leukaemia, the PML::RARA fusion protein recruits HDAC-containing complexes, which can be disrupted by treatment with __________ and arsenic trioxide.

all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA)

23
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DNA methylation involves the covalent addition of a methyl group to the 5-carbon position of cytosine residues within CpG dinucleotides, yielding __________.

5-methylcytosine

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The enzyme responsible for copying and maintaining existing DNA methylation patterns during replication is __________.

DNMT1

25
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The establishment of new methylation patterns during embryogenesis and differentiation is catalyzed by the de novo methyltransferases __________ and __________.

DNMT3A and DNMT3B

26
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Active DNA demethylation is initiated by the __________ family of enzymes, which oxidize 5-methylcytosine.

TET (Ten-Eleven Translocation)

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According to the histone methylation transcriptional rules, methylation at H3K4 activates transcription ('ON'), whereas methylation at H3K27 and __________ represses transcription ('OFF').

H3K9

28
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EZH2, a component of Polycomb Repressive Complex 2, functions as a __________.

histone methyltransferase (HMT)

29
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Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS) frequently exhibit global DNA hypermethylation, providing the rationale for treatment with __________ agents.

hypomethylating

30
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Normal cellular genes that control cell growth, proliferation, differentiation, and survival before becoming oncogenic through mutation are termed __________.

proto-oncogenes

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The CCND1 proto-oncogene encodes Cyclin D1, which promotes G1G_1 progression by activating __________.

CDK4/6

32
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Following DNA damage, activation of p53 induces the expression of CDKN1A (p21p21), preventing phosphorylation of RB, which inhibits the transcription factor __________ and blocks S-phase entry.

E2F

33
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Upon growth factor withdrawal, elevated levels of the cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor __________ inhibit CDK2/CDK4 to enforce G1G_1 arrest.

p27

34
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In Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia (CLL), reduced expression of the cell cycle inhibitor __________ is associated with more aggressive disease and shorter progression-free survival.

p27

35
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The three fundamental pathogenic mechanisms of malignant transformation in haematological malignancies are uncontrolled proliferation, inhibition of apoptosis, and __________.

inhibition of maturation

36
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<p>In the diagram of normal haematopoiesis, the common stem cell that diverges into both the common myeloid progenitor and the common lymphoid progenitor is the __________.</p>

In the diagram of normal haematopoiesis, the common stem cell that diverges into both the common myeloid progenitor and the common lymphoid progenitor is the __________.

Multipotential hematopoietic stem cell (Hemocytoblast)

37
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<p>In the cell cycle checkpoints diagram shown, the checkpoint designated for repairing damaged DNA and rectifying errors during DNA replication is the __________.</p>

In the cell cycle checkpoints diagram shown, the checkpoint designated for repairing damaged DNA and rectifying errors during DNA replication is the __________.

S Checkpoint

38
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<p>According to the detailed cell cycle control diagram, the spindle assembly checkpoint (M checkpoint) utilizes Mad2, BubR1, Bub3, and Mps1 as sensors, and acts via the effector __________ to target separase.</p>

According to the detailed cell cycle control diagram, the spindle assembly checkpoint (M checkpoint) utilizes Mad2, BubR1, Bub3, and Mps1 as sensors, and acts via the effector __________ to target separase.

APC/C