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Comprehensive fill-in-the-blank practice flashcards covering haematological malignancies, haematopoiesis, cell cycle checkpoints, oncogenes, tumour suppressor pathways, and epigenetic modifications.
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Haematological malignancies are defined as clonal disorders of haemopoietic __________ or progenitor cells.
stem
Unlike solid tumours that typically present as a localized mass, haemopoietic neoplasms arise from blood-forming and lymphoid tissues and frequently exhibit __________ disease at presentation.
widespread
In classical hematology, haematological malignancies are broadly classified into three major groups: leukemias, lymphomas, and __________.
multiple myeloma
William Dameshek introduced the classification of myeloproliferative disorders in 1951, but the terminology was later altered after Nowell and Hungerford discovered the __________ chromosome.
Philadelphia
In healthy adults, normal haematopoiesis produces approximately __________ to __________ blood cells daily to replace senescent cells.
1011 to 1012
The property of haematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) to reside within specialised bone marrow niches is termed __________.
homing
During normal haemopoiesis, the primary function of Stem Cell Factor (SCF) is to promote __________.
stem cell survival
In the regulation of haemopoiesis, interleukin-3 (IL-3) primarily modulates __________.
early progenitor proliferation
While G-CSF selectively stimulates neutrophil production, GM-CSF stimulates the production of __________.
granulocytes and monocytes
In the cell cycle, the resting phase in which cells remain alive but are not dividing is designated as the __________.
G0 phase
Progression through the S phase of the cell cycle is driven by the __________ complex.
Cyclin A-CDK2
Progression through the M phase of the cell cycle is driven by the cyclin-CDK complex __________.
Cyclin B-CDK1 (MPF)
At the G2 checkpoint, sensors ATM, ATR, Chk1, and Chk2 signal effectors p53 and p21 to target __________ inhibition, keeping CDK1 inactive.
Cdc25C
Negative regulators of the G1 checkpoint (Restriction Point) include p16INK4a, p21, p27, and __________.
p57
The oncogene BCR-ABL1 is classically associated with __________.
Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia
The oncogene MYC is typically associated with Burkitt Lymphoma, whereas JAK2 mutations are associated with __________.
Myeloproliferative Neoplasms
The tumour suppressor gene TP53 is widely referred to as the '__________'.
guardian of the genome
Histone acetyltransferases (HATs) catalyze the transfer of an acetyl group from acetyl-CoA to __________ residues on histone proteins.
lysine
Histone acetylation neutralizes the positive charge on lysine residues, relaxing chromatin into transcriptionally active __________.
euchromatin
Histone Deacetylases (HDACs) remove acetyl groups from histones, restoring positive charges and resulting in condensed chromatin and __________.
gene silencing
In Acute Myeloid Leukaemia, the fusion protein RUNX1::RUNX1T1 (AML1-ETO) recruits HDACs to promoter regions, causing a maturation arrest and accumulation of __________.
myeloblasts
In acute promyelocytic leukaemia, the PML::RARA fusion protein recruits HDAC-containing complexes, which can be disrupted by treatment with __________ and arsenic trioxide.
all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA)
DNA methylation involves the covalent addition of a methyl group to the 5-carbon position of cytosine residues within CpG dinucleotides, yielding __________.
5-methylcytosine
The enzyme responsible for copying and maintaining existing DNA methylation patterns during replication is __________.
DNMT1
The establishment of new methylation patterns during embryogenesis and differentiation is catalyzed by the de novo methyltransferases __________ and __________.
DNMT3A and DNMT3B
Active DNA demethylation is initiated by the __________ family of enzymes, which oxidize 5-methylcytosine.
TET (Ten-Eleven Translocation)
According to the histone methylation transcriptional rules, methylation at H3K4 activates transcription ('ON'), whereas methylation at H3K27 and __________ represses transcription ('OFF').
H3K9
EZH2, a component of Polycomb Repressive Complex 2, functions as a __________.
histone methyltransferase (HMT)
Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS) frequently exhibit global DNA hypermethylation, providing the rationale for treatment with __________ agents.
hypomethylating
Normal cellular genes that control cell growth, proliferation, differentiation, and survival before becoming oncogenic through mutation are termed __________.
proto-oncogenes
The CCND1 proto-oncogene encodes Cyclin D1, which promotes G1 progression by activating __________.
CDK4/6
Following DNA damage, activation of p53 induces the expression of CDKN1A (p21), preventing phosphorylation of RB, which inhibits the transcription factor __________ and blocks S-phase entry.
E2F
Upon growth factor withdrawal, elevated levels of the cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor __________ inhibit CDK2/CDK4 to enforce G1 arrest.
p27
In Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia (CLL), reduced expression of the cell cycle inhibitor __________ is associated with more aggressive disease and shorter progression-free survival.
p27
The three fundamental pathogenic mechanisms of malignant transformation in haematological malignancies are uncontrolled proliferation, inhibition of apoptosis, and __________.
inhibition of maturation

In the diagram of normal haematopoiesis, the common stem cell that diverges into both the common myeloid progenitor and the common lymphoid progenitor is the __________.
Multipotential hematopoietic stem cell (Hemocytoblast)

In the cell cycle checkpoints diagram shown, the checkpoint designated for repairing damaged DNA and rectifying errors during DNA replication is the __________.
S Checkpoint

According to the detailed cell cycle control diagram, the spindle assembly checkpoint (M checkpoint) utilizes Mad2, BubR1, Bub3, and Mps1 as sensors, and acts via the effector __________ to target separase.
APC/C