POSC110 Final Study Guide

Quiz 1- Politics and Political Science

1. Which of the following best summarizes Harold Lasswell's classic definition of politics?

a . How societies deal with truth and morality

b. The exercise of power by sovereigns

c. The organization of government bureaucracy

d. Political theory in historical context

e. Who gets what, when, and how

e. Who gets what, when, and how

Harold Lasswell's definition "Who gets what, when, and how" is the gold standard because it views politics as a process of resource distribution and power dynamics rather than just moral philosophy

2. What is a hypothesis in political science?

A tentative statement about reality that can be tested

b. A belief grounded in ideology

c. A definition proposed by the legislature

d. An observation of existing behavior

e. A philosophical speculation

a. A tentative statement about reality that can be tested

In the scientific method, a hypothesis must be testable. It is a tentative statement that researchers attempt to prove or disprove through data.

3. Which of the following best describes a goal of normative political science?

a. Evaluating the legitimacy of elected officials

b . Understanding institutional design through data

c . Predicting outcomes in public opinion

d. Determining what is right or just in politics

e. Describing policy outcomes.

d.Determining what is right or just in politics

Normative political science deals with "ought" questions—values, ethics, and determining what is "just" or "right" in a society.

4. What distinguishes empirical political science from normative political science?

a. It seeks to describe and predict using evidence.

b. It is practiced only in laboratory settings.

c. It avoids the use of the scientific method

d. It uses judgments as data.

e. It focuses only on the past

a. It seeks to describe and predict using evidence.

Empirical science is based on observation and evidence. It seeks to describe the world as it actually is, whereas normative science describes how it should be.

5. In political science which three elements are said to define any politcal event?

a. Candidates, voters, and parties

b. Rules, reality, and choices,

c. Democracy, sovereignty, and legitimacy

d. Policy, rhetoric, and partisanship

e. Facts, values, interests

b. Rules, reality, and choices,

Any political event is shaped by the Rules (laws/institutions), Reality (the facts on the ground), and Choices (the agency of the actors involved).

Quiz 2- Installing and Setting Up R

1. Why is RStudio used as the primary interface for coding in R, even though R includes

its own built-in graphical interface?

a. Because RStudio offers a more organized and user-friendly environment for writ-

ing, saving, and running scripts

b. Because Studio provides more statistical functions than R itself

c. Because RStudio is required to run any R code

d. Because RStudio automatically validates code for academic use

e. Because the base R GUI only works on Mac operating systems

a. Because RStudio offers a more organized and user-friendly environment for writing, saving, and running scripts

2. What is the primary purpose of saving your work in an R script file rather than relying on commands entered during a single session?

a . To reduce the amount of memory used by R

b. To ensure that plots are stored permanently

c. To speed up package installation

d. To prevent RStudio from clearing the Console automatically

e. To allow your analysis to be saved, revised, and rerun in the future

e. To allow your analysis to be saved, revised, and rerun in the future

Code typed into the console vanishes once R is closed. Script files allow for reproducibility, meaning you can rerun the exact same analysis later.

3. Which of the following best explains why running code line-by-line from a script file

matters in RStudio?

a. It reduces memory usage by half

b. It allows the user to track and troubleshoot the logical flow of the code

c. It guarantees compatibility across operating systems

d. It enables access to restricted statistical functions

e. It automatically corrects incorrect lines.

b. It allows the user to track and troubleshoot the logical flow of the code

Running code line-by-line allows a coder to see exactly where a mistake happens, making it easier to troubleshoot the logical flow.

4. Why is it recommended to save R script files with descriptive names and appropriate extensions?

a. Because R requires file names to match function names

b. Because unclear names cause RStudio to reject the script

c. Because CRAN guidelines require a specific naming format.

d. because files without the .R extension cannot be run.

e. Because clear naming conventions improve organization, collaboration, and reproducibility.

e. Because clear naming conventions improve organization, collaboration, and reproducibility.

5. How do the environment and history panes in RStudio support effective coding practices for beginners?

a. They automatically rewrite inefficient code and suggest alternatives

b. They show the full output of every function, including plots and diagnostics

c. They prevent the execution of duplicate code lines to optimize performance.

d. They allow users to track objects in memory and recover previously run commands

e. They save a copy of each R script to your working directory by default

d. They allow users to track objects in memory and recover previously run commands

Quiz 3- Descriptive Statistics

1. You are analyzing income data and want t o report a single value that represents a

typical income level. Which measure of central tendency identifies the middle value of a numeric variable?

a. Median

b. Mean

c. Mode

d. Standard deviation

e. Range

a. Median

2. Which of the following measures of dispersion can be calculated using the sd()

function in R?

a . Range

b. Variance

c. Mean

d. Interquartile range

e. Standard deviation

e. Standard deviation

3. Which function does Sumner use t o create a cross-tabulation of two categorical

variables in base R?

a. xtabs()

b. summary()

c. tapply()

d. cor()

e. table()

e. table()

4. According to Sumner, what does a correlation of -1 indicate?

a. The variables are unrelated

b. If one variable goes up by one, the other goes down by one

c. The variables move in the same direction

d. The variables have no variation

e. One variable causes the other

b. If one variable goes up by one, the other goes down by one

This represents a negative relationship. If one variable increases, the other decreases by exactly the same proportion

5. According to Sumner, which two functions should you use to find the lowest and highest values of a numeric variable in base R?

a. summary() and quantile()

b. sd() and var()

c. table() and tapply()

d. mean() and median()

e. min() and max()

e. min() and max()

Quiz 4- Introduction to Data Science

1. Which of the following best describes the goal of data science?

a. To automate machine learning

b . To create data visualizations for businesses

c. To design storage systems for IT networks

d . To reduce server costs using AI

e. To collect and analyze data for meaningful insights

e. To collect and analyze data for meaningful insights

2. What is the first step in the data science cycle?

a. Data analysis

b. Problem definition

c. Data visualization

d. Data collection

e. Data cleaning

a. Data analysis

3. Which of the following is an example of data collected as a by-product of activity?

a. Web search histories

b. Responses to a survey

c. Lab test results

d. Medical imaging data

e. Census questionnaires.

a. Web search histories

4. What distinguishes a structured dataset from an unstructured one?

a. Structured datasets only include numeric values

b. Unstructured datasets can not be visualized

c Structured datasets organize data into rows and columns

d. Unstructured datasets must be collected manually

e. Structured datasets can not store text-based information

c Structured datasets organize data into rows and columns

5. What is the purpose of data visualization in data science?

a. To design websites for business analytics

b. To automate code testing

c. To encode machine learning models

d. To communicate patterns and insights clearly

e. To reduce the number of data entries

d. To communicate patterns and insights clearly

Quiz 5- Political Behavior

1. Which of the following best illustrates Rawls's theory of justice?

a. Rule by philosopher-kings

b. Equal sharing of wealth regardless of contributions

c. Decisions made behind a "veil of ignorance."

d. Allocation based on merit and talent

e. Maximization of market efficiency

c. Decisions made behind a "veil of ignorance."

2. According to political psychology, what does "thinking fast" mean?

a. Avoiding emotionally charged decisions

b. Solving problems with a team

c. Making choices after careful deliberation

d. Responding automatically and intuitively

e. Ignoring social cues in political contexts

d. Responding automatically and intuitively

3. What is a key difference between strategic and expressive political behavior?

a. Expressive shows identity; strategic aims to achieve goals

b. Strategic is unconscious; expressive is deliberate

c. Expressive is used mainly in campaigns

d. Strategic is about morality, expressive is about power

e. Expressive is more rational than strategic

a. Expressive shows identity; strategic aims to achieve goals

4. Which of the following best describes expressive political behavior as discussed in the chapter?

a. Behavior aimed at maximizing material benefits

b. Actions intended primarily to influence policy outcomes

c. Behavior meant to signal identity or values

d. Actions driven solely by unconscious impulses

e. Behavior that ignores social context

c. Behavior meant to signal identity or values

5. What lessons does the ultimatum game teach about political behavior

a. Voting is purely emotional

b. Contexts affect how people make decisions

c. Citizens ignore fairness in economic decisions

d. Resource allocation has no connection to politics

e. People always act in their own self-interest

b. Contexts affect how people make decisions

Quiz 6 - Group Political Activity

1. What defines a collective action problem?

a. A situation in which individuals have incentives to pursue their self-interest in

ways that harm the group

b. A situation in which individuals always cooperate to achieve shared goals

c. A disagreement among political parties over policy priorities

d. A failure of government institutions to enforce laws.

e. A lack of communication among group members

a. A situation in which individuals have incentives to pursue their self-interest in ways that harm the group

2. What is a coordination problem in group decision-making?

a. A situation in which individuals refuse to participate in group activities

b. A conflict caused by unequal access to political resources

c. A situation in which group members generally agree on goals but disagree on how

to achieve them

d. A disagreement between leaders and followers

e. A problem caused by excessive government regulation

c. A situation in which group members generally agree on goals but disagree on how to achieve them

3. What are conformity costs?

a. The financial expenses required to participate in politics

b. The time lost due to lengthy political debates

c. The costs imposed by government regulations

d. The penalties for violating group norms.

e. The difference between what an individual wants from a policy decision and what they actually receive.

e. The difference between what an individual wants from a policy decision and what they actually receive.

4. Which of the following best describes free riding?

a. Actively organizing others to support a political cause

b. Benefiting from a group effort without contributing to it

c. Compromising with political opponents

d. Enforcing rules within a political organization

e. Participating in collective decision-making

b. Benefiting from a group effort without contributing to it

5. Why might a group tolerate higher conformity costs in some decisions?

a. Because allowing more voices to be heard can increase legitimacy and agreement, even if decisions take longer

b. Because faster decision-making always produces better outcomes

c. Because reducing participation increases efficiency

d. Because conformity costs eliminate political conflict

e. Because conformity costs reduce transaction costs in emergencies

a. Because allowing more voices to be heard can increase legitimacy and agreement, even if decisions take longer

Quiz-7 Public Economy

1. What concept explains why a rational person may choose not to become informed or vote?

a. Rational ignorance

b. Representative disillusionment

c. Voter suppression

d. Electoral fatigue

e. Opportunity costs

a. Rational ignorance

2. What is pork-barrel spending?

a. Spending focused on long-term debt reduction

b. Spending tied directly to national infrastructure

c. Spending that is approved through public referenda

d. Spending proposed by non-elected officials

e. Spending that benefits mainly one district but is funded nationally

e. Spending that benefits mainly one district but is funded nationally

3. Which of the following best characterizes logrolling in politics?

a. Assigning term limits to committee members

b. Rotating leadership roles in Congress

c. Requiring budget reconciliation procedures

d. Mutual agreement among legislators to vote for each other's projects.

e. Sharing committee reports across subcommittees

d. Mutual agreement among legislators to vote for each other's projects.

4. What issue arises when majority preferences cannot be clearly detirmined due to conflicting pairwise preferences

a. Electoral Fraud

b. Gerrymandering

c. Political stalemate

d. Ballot fatigue

e. Voting cycle

e. Voting cycle

Which theory suggests that politicians will adopt positions that appeal to the voter in the middle of the preference distribution

a. Voting cycle

b. Rational ignorance

c. Logrolling

d. Pork-barrel spending

e. Median voter theory

e. Median voter theory

Quiz 8: Visualizing Data with Base Graphics

1. You run plot(mydata$age) in base R, where age is a numeric vector. What does the graph show?

a. A circular chart showing proportions of age groups

b. A summary of how often each age occurs

c. A box summarizing quartiles and outliers in age

d. A bar chart of unique age values

e. A visual of how values change by their position in the dataset

e. A visual of how values change by their position in the dataset

2. You are working with a continuous numeric variable and want to examine its distribution across a range of values. Which base R function should you use to create a plot that groups data into bins and shows their frequency?

a. barplot()

b. boxplot()

c. hist()

d. pie()

e. plot()

c. hist()

Which type of data is best visualized using a bar plot in base R?

a. The frequency of values in a categorical variable

b. Relationships between two numeric variables

c. The distribution of a continuous variable

d. Proportions of a whole

e. The median of a numeric variable

a. The frequency of values in a categorical variable

4. Which of the following functions would you use to visualize the spread and central tendency of a numeric variable across groups?

a. barplot()

b. hist()

c. pie()

d. boxplot()

e. plot()

d. boxplot()

5. Which of the following best describes the use of a scatter plot in base R?

a. It compares two continuous variables.

b. It compares numeric to categorical values

c. It shows proportions of a whole

d. It displays ranking by group

e. It shows frequency distributions of one variable

a. It compares two continuous variables.

Quiz 9 - The U.S. Constitution

1. According to Enlightenment thinker John Locke, which of the following are natural rights?

a. Life, liberty, and property

b. Liberty, justice, and property

c. Freedom, dignity, and equality

d. Speech, press, and religion

e. Life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness

a. Life, liberty, and property

2. Which of the following was a key weakness of the Articles of Confederation?

a. Congress could regulate interstate commerce

b. Congress had no power to impose taxes

c. Congress had an executive branch to enforce laws

d. Congress was able to conscript troops

e. Congress could overrule state laws

b. Congress had no power to impose taxes.

3. What did the Great Compromise establish?

a. A Supreme Court with appointed judges

b. Representation based solely on population

c. A bicameral legislature with proportional and equal representation

d. Direct election of the president

e. A unicameral legislature with equal state votes

c. A bicameral legislature with proportional and equal representation

4. Which argument did Federalists make in favor of ratifying the Constitution?

a. A weak national government prevented tyranny

b. The Constitution would enable an alliance with France

c. States were better able to protect individual rights

d. A stronger central government was needed for stability.

e. The Articles should remain unchanged

d. A stronger central government was needed for stability.

5. What was the result of the promise to add a Bill of Rights to the Constitution?

a. It delayed ratification by three years

b. It weakened the power of the presidency

c. It ended slavery in Northern states

d. It allowed states to nullify federal laws

e. It secured ratification from several hesitant states.

e. It secured ratification from several hesitant states.

Quiz 10 - Political Parties

1. What is the primary purpose of political parties in a democracy?

a. To divide government powers between branches

b. To recruit and support candidates for public office

c. To adjudicate disputes in the legislature

d. To appoint judges to the courts

e. To register interest groups

b. To recruit and support candidates for public office

2. Why does the U.S. have a two-party system?

a. Voters prefer ideological simplicity

b. The Constitution requires only two parties

c. Single-member, winner-take-all districts discourage third parties

d. Federal law prohibits more than two parties from running

e. The Electoral College enforces a two-party modelparties.

c. Single-member, winner-take-all districts discourage third parties

3. What is the role of the national party committee in U.S. politics?

a. To certify electoral votes after presidential elections

b. To oversee the judiciary's ethical conduct

c. To organize the party's national convention and coordinate campaign strategy

d. To manage local ballot initiatives and referenda

e. To enforce campaign finance laws

c. To organize the party's national convention and coordinate campaign strategy

4. What does the term "party polarization" refer to?

a. Internal disagreement within a party

b. Growth of third parties in government

c. Agreement between the major parties

d. Increasing ideological distance between major parties

e. Declining interest in political issues

d. Increasing ideological distance between major parties

5. Which factor is most commonly cited as contributing to increased party polarization?

a. Expansion of minor parties

b. Sorting of voters based on ideology

c. Public funding of campaigns

d. Proportional representation

e. Increased presidential power

b. Sorting of voters based on ideology

Quiz 11 - Interest Groups

1. Which of the following best defines an interest group?

a. A branch of government dedicated to legislation

b. An informal social network focused on fundraising

c. A formal group that seeks to influence public policy

d. A political party that runs candidates for office

e. A government agency that regulates elections

c. A formal group that seeks to influence public policy

2. What is the free rider problem?

a. When voters rely on media coverage of elections

b. When parties nominate candidates without primaries

c. When lobbyists pay lawmakers directly

d. When interest groups work across party lines

e. When benefits are enjoyed by non-members who don't contribute

e. When benefits are enjoyed by non-members who don't contribute

3. What is the main function of political action committees (PACs)?

a. To regulate campaign media coverage

b. To write legislation

c. To adjudicate ethical violations in Congress

d. To collect and distribute campaign contributions

e. To enforce election laws

d. To collect and distribute campaign contributions

4. What distinguishes inside lobbying from outside lobbying?

a. Outside lobbying relies solely on internet petitions

b. Inside lobbying targets lawmakers directly; outside lobbying targets the public

c. Inside lobbying involves public protests

d. Inside lobbying includes PAC fundraising dinners

e. Outside lobbying always violates campaign finance law

b. Inside lobbying targets lawmakers directly; outside lobbying targets the public

5. Which of the following best describes the revolving door in U.S. politics?

a. The process of replacing lawmakers after an election

b. The pattern of changing party affiliation before elections

c. The cycle of campaign promises and disappointments

d. The movement of individuals between government and lobbying roles

e. Laws that regulate employment benefits

d. The movement of individuals between government and lobbying roles

Quiz 12 - Congress

1. What was the original reason for creating a bicameral legislature in the United States?

a. To increase the efficiency of passing legislation

b. To resolve a conflict between large and small states

c. To reduce regional political influence

d. To prevent the president from holding legislative power

e. To give more authority to the Supreme Court

b. To resolve a conflict between large and small states

2. Which of the following is an example of an enumerated power granted to Congress?

a. Appointing federal judges

b. Creating local school curriculums

c. Overruling Supreme Court decisions

d. Declaring war on another country

e. Establishing a national religion

d. Declaring war on another country

3. Which factor contributes most significantly to the incumbency advantage in congressional elections?

a. Mandatory retirement ages for challengers

b. Term limits enforced by the Constitution

c. Greater access to fundraising and name recognition

d. Proportional representation

e. Higher levels of voter turnout

c. Greater access to fundraising and name recognition

4. The trustee model of representation allows members of Congress to:

a. Mirror the exact preferences of their district voters

b. Represent only interest groups that contribute financially

c. Focus only on committee work rather than floor votes

d. Act according to what they believe is in the best interests of constituents

e. Always defer to the majority party's stance

d. Act according to what they believe is in the best interests of constituents

5. Which of the following best describes the legislative process in Congress?

a. Bills become law automatically unless vetoed

b. Bills must pass both chambers and be signed by the president

c. Every bill must be introduced in the Senate

d. Committee chairs alone determine the fate of all bills

e. Only Supreme Court justices may draft legislation

b. Bills must pass both chambers and be signed by the president.

Quiz 13 - The Executive

1. Which of the following was a key reason the framers created a single executive?

a. To concentrate power in a monarch-like figure

b. To ensure presidential selection by Congress

c. To allow a council to govern as a collective presidency

d. To promote accountability and decision-making efficiency

e. To make the office more ceremonial than functional

d. To promote accountability and decision-making efficiency

2. Which of the following best describes the Electoral College system?

a. It ensures each state receives equal representation in Congress

b. It allows Congress to directly choose the president

c. It grants each state a number of votes equal to its House and Senate seats

d. It divides votes equally among all U.S. citizens

e. It was abolished by the Twelfth Amendment

c. It grants each state a number of votes equal to its House and Senate seats.

3. What is the Executive Office of the President primarily responsible for?

a. Administering justice in federal courts

b. Managing relations between state governors and the president

c. Advising the president and helping implement policy

d. Drafting legislation in the House of Representatives

e. Conducting military operations in foreign countries

c. Advising the president and helping implement policy

4. The term "bully pulpit" refers to the president's ability to:

a. Appoint cabinet members without Senate approval

b. Speak directly to the public to influence opinion.

c. Sign executive agreements with foreign governments

d. Directly override Supreme Court decisions

e. Lead Congress in drafting bills

b. Speak directly to the public to influence opinion.

5. Which of the following is a limitation of executive orders?

a. They allow presidents to remove members of Congress

b. They cannot be reviewed by the courts

c. They are binding for future presidents

d. They require a supermajority vote in the Senate

e. They lack permanence and can be overturned by successors.

e. They lack permanence and can be overturned by successors.

Quiz 14 - The Courts

1. According to Federalist No. 78, the judicial branch is considered:

a. The most influential and dangerous

b. The least dangerous branch

c. The branch with the power of the purse

d. The branch closest to the people

e. An extension of legislative authority

b. The least dangerous branch

2. What is meant by the term "dual court system"?

a. Courts operate at both federal and state levels

b. All courts follow the same legal procedures

c. Federal judges serve in state courts

d. State courts may override federal court decisions

e. Judges rotate between civil and criminal dockets

a. Courts operate at both federal and state levels

3. Which of the following courts is typically the first to hear a case in the federal system?

a. The Supreme Court

b. Circuit courts

c. District courts

d. State appellate courts

e. Legislative courts

c. District courts

4. Which of the following best describes judicial review?

a. The right of the president to interpret laws

b. The ability of courts to overturn unconstitutional laws or actions

c. The process of impeachment in the judiciary

d. A review conducted by Congress of all federal rulings

e. The appointment process of federal judges

b. The ability of courts to overturn unconstitutional laws or actions

5. Which of the following can best limit the Supreme Court's ability to implement its rulings?

a. Public disapproval

b. A dissenting opinion

c. Congressional override

d. Lack of enforcement by the executive branch

e. Appointment of additional justices

d. Lack of enforcement by the executive branch

Quiz 15 - Federalism

1. Which Supreme Court case first established the principle of national supremacy over the states?

a. Gibbons v. Ogden

b. Dred Scott v. Sandford

c. Marbury v. Madison

d. McCulloch v. Maryland

e. United States v. Lopez

d. McCulloch v. Maryland

2. Which of the following best characterizes the difference between dual federalism and cooperative federalism?

a. Dual federalism views state and federal authority as separate; cooperative federalism involves shared functions.

b. Dual federalism is based on grants; cooperative federalism is based on mandates

c. Dual federalism is used only during wartime

d. Cooperative federalism gives all power to the states

e. Dual federalism applies only to judicial interpretation

a. Dual federalism views state and federal authority as separate; cooperative federalism involves shared functions.

3. Which of the following is a disadvantage of federalism?

a. It promotes experimentation and flexibility

b. It creates uniform national policies

c. It can cause economic and social disparities among states

d. It increases citizen access to elected officials

e. It reduces complexity in government

c. It can cause economic and social disparities among states.

4. What is meant by the term "race to the bottom" in the context of federalism?

a. States attempt to increase minimum wage faster than federal law

b. States compete to attract business by reducing taxes and regulations

c. States prioritize education over healthcare spending

d. Federal agencies override state regulations

e. States relinquish power to federal courts

b. States compete to attract business by reducing taxes and regulations.

5. What is a block grant?

a. A grant requiring states to meet national performance goals

b. A grant that funds specific, narrowly defined programs

c. A grant offering flexibility to states with broad spending guidelines

d. A matching grant requiring state contributions

e. A categorical grant designated for infrastructure

c. A grant offering flexibility to states with broad spending guidelines

Quiz 16: Civil Liberties

1. What are civil liberties primarily designed to do?

a. Guarantee equal treatment for all individuals

b. Expand the powers of state governments

c. Protect individuals from government overreach

d. Enforce religious conformity

e. Fund federal social programs

c. Protect individuals from government overreach

2. What is the legal doctrine of selective incorporation?

a. The process by which civil liberties are guaranteed only to citizens

b. The automatic application of all federal laws to states

c. The gradual application of the Bill of Rights to state governments

d. The expansion of congressional powers under the commerce clause

e. The enforcement of constitutional rights through executive orders

c. The gradual application of the Bill of Rights to state governments

3. Which right is protected by the Fourth Amendment?

a. Freedom of the press

b. Protection from cruel and unusual punishment

c. The right to bear arms

d. Protection from unreasonable searches and seizures

e. The right to free expression

d. Protection from unreasonable searches and seizures

4. Why did the founders initially oppose adding a Bill of Rights to the Constitution?

a. They wanted to avoid granting too many rights

b. They believed states had stronger courts

c. They thought enumerating rights might limit other unlisted ones

d. They preferred relying on English common law

e. They feared Congress would ignore it

c. They thought enumerating rights might limit other unlisted ones

5. Which of the following court cases is associated with the exclusionary rule?

a. Mapp v. Ohio

b. Miranda v. Arizona

c. Barron v. Baltimore

d. Gideon v. Wainwright

e. McDonald v. Chicago

a. Mapp v. Ohio

Quiz 17 - Civil Rights

1. Which of the following laws banned discrimination in public accommodations and employment?

a. Civil Rights Act of 1964

b. Voting Rights Act of 1965

c. Equal Rights Amendment

d. Title IX of the Education Amendments

e. Affirmative Action Act

a. Civil Rights Act of 1964

2. What strategy did the NAACP most famously use to combat racial segregation?

a. Direct lobbying of state legislatures

b. Armed resistance

c. Legal challenges through the court system

d. Grassroots boycotts and labor strikes

e. Partisan political campaigns

c. Legal challenges through the court system

3. Which of the following best describes the significance of Brown v. Board of Education (1954)?

a. It upheld state bans on interracial marriage

b. It legalized public prayer in schools

c. It declared racial segregation in schools unconstitutional

d. It struck down voting age restrictions

e. It limited the use of affirmative action

c. It declared racial segregation in schools unconstitutional