M1 FINAL COACHING

1. Which of the following represents the index of the

protective power of colloids?

A. Nuggets

B. Lumina

C. Poise

D. Zsigmondy

D

2. What is formed when an atom or cation acts as the center about which anions or molecules arrange themselves?

A. Covalent compounds

B. Ionic compounds

C. Complexes

D. Ionic-covalent compounds

C

3. What does enthalpy refer to in thermodynamics

A. Latent heat

B. Heat content

C. Degree of total molecular

D. Heat of fusion

B

4. The following are characteristics of active transport,

EXCEPT:

A. Higher to lower concentration gradient

B. Follow saturation kinetics

C. Carrier mediated

D. Expenditure of energy

A

5. Calcium sulfate dihydrate is also names as

A. Fluorspar

B. Limestone

C. Talc

D. Selenite

D

6. What is quartz?

A. Silicon dioxide

B. Magnesium oxide

C. Carbon dioxide

D. Aluminum oxide

A

7. Which is the LIGHTEST of all metals

A. Platinum

B. Lithium

C. Nickel

D. Magnesium

B

8. Which paired elements belong to Group VII-A

A. F, Br

B. No, Co

C. F, Na

D. Na,F

A

9. Which group is referred to as "alkali metals"?

A. Group 1-A

B. Group II-A

C. Group IV-A

D. Group III-A

A

10. Which are properties of ammoniated mercury?

I. Volatilizes at red heat

II. Occurs as white amorphous powder

III. Soluble in water and alcohol

IV. Decomposes without fusion

A. I, III, IV

B. I, II, IV

C. I, II, III, IV

D. I, III, IV

B

11. Which of the following binary compounds is called

arsine?

A. CH3

B. AsH3

C. PH3

D. NH3

B

12. Which of the following represents the chemical

formula of calomel?

A. HgCl

B. HgO

C. HgCl₂

D. SnCl₄

A

13. Elements that can exists in two or more crystalline

forms are said to be:

A. Amphoteric

B. Polymorphic

C. Amorphous

D. Allotropic

D

14. Cream of tartar is known chemically as

A. Potassium bitartrate

B. Sodium potassium tartrate

C. Zinc oxide

D. Potassium nitrate

A

15. The following elements form basic hydrides,

EXCEPT:

A. Calcium

B. Sulfur

C. Strontium

D. Magnesium

B

16. Which of the elements is the MOST electronegative

A. I

B. Br

C. Cl

D. F

D

17. Amalgams is an alloy of which of the following elements?

A. Mercury

B. Iron

C. Copper

D. Zinc

A

18. The following compose group V cations, EXCEPT:

A. Manganese

B. Lithium

C. Potassium

D. Sodium

A

19. Which of the following elements are referred to as

the triad of Group VIII?

I. Co

II. Mn

III. Ni

IV. Fe

A. I, III, IV

B. I, II, III

C. I, II, IV

D. II, III, IV

A

20. Which of the following elements are referred to as

volatile metals?

I Cadmium

II. Mercury

III. Beryllium

IV. Zinc

A. I, III, IV

B. II, III, IV

C. I, II, IV

D. I, II, III

C

21. Determine the valence of chromium in potassium

chromate with the chemical formula: K2CrO4

A. 6

B. 5

C. 8

D. 7

A

22. Which of the following elements are amphoteric?

I. Beryllium

II. Zinc

III. Aluminum

IV. Calcium

A. I, III

B. II, III

C. III, IV

D. I, II

A

23. What is liberated when potassium permanganate is

reacted with hydrochloric acid?

A. Manganous oxide

B. Hypochlorous acid

C. Chlorine

D. Hydrogen

C

24. When acids are in solution, which of the following is

released?

A. Positrons

B. Neutrons

C. Protons

D. Electrons

C

25. When water undergoes electrolysis forming hydrogen and oxygen molecules, which of the following phrases BEST describes this occurrence?

A. Substitution reaction

B. Chemical change

C. Physical change

D. Evaporation

B

26. Which law describes the relationship between

pressure, volume, and temperature of gases as depicted

in the equation PV=nRT?

A. Law of Definite Proportions

B. Ideal gas law

C. Gay Lussac's law

D. Boyle's law

B

27. In sulfonate conjugation which of the following groups is transformed during functionalization phase of biotransformation of xenobiotics?

A. Sulfide

B. Sulfonate

C. Sulfhydryl

D. Sulfate

D

28. Which of the following is NOT a condition that can

occur during metabolic acidosis

A. Diabetic acidosis

B. Renal failure

C. Diarrhea

D. Hypertension

D

29. Replacement therapy is needed when there is:

I. Heavy loss of water

II. Prolonged fever

III. Fracture

IV. Diarrhea

A. I, II, III

B. I, II, IV

C. II, III, IV

D. I, III, IV

B

30. Which of the following compounds exhibits

amphoteric properties making it suitable to prevent

systemic alkalosis?

A. Aluminum hydroxide

B. Calcium hydroxide

C. Magnesium sulfate

D. Barium sulfate

A

31. Which statements BEST describe the properties of

elements in the Periodic Table, from the upper right

corner, going down and then to the left?

I. Elements increase in metallic character

II. Elements become more electronegative

III. Elements become more basic

IV. Elements become less electronegative

A. I, III, IV

B. I, II, III

C. II, III, IV

D. I, II, IV

A

32. Which of the following is a wax obtained from whales used in the preparation of cosmetic creams and fine wax candles

A. Spermaceti

B. Carrageenan

C. Fucoidan

D. Prostaglandins

A

33. Which ion gives a Turnbull's blue precipitate upon

addition with potassium ferricyanide

A. Stannic

B. Ferric

C. Stannous

D. Ferrous

D

34. Which among the following characteristics differentiates Calcium containing antacid forms from Aluminum containing antacids?

A. Calcium is odorless

B. Calcium does not cause alkalosis

C. Calcium does not have amphoteric properties and

does not cause systemic alkalosis

D. Calcium does not have amphoteric properties

D

35. Which of the following elements is NOT found as

component of extracellular fluids in humans?

A Calcium ion

B. Sodium ions

C. lodide

D. Chloride

C

36. Which salt is found in the bicarbonate buffer system of the extracellular fluid of the human body?

A Magnesium bicarbonate

B. Potassium bicarbonate

C Sodium bicarbonate

D. Sodium chloride

C

37. Surfactants are characterized by the presence of which of the following?

A. Water solubilizing and fat solubilizing groups in the same molecule

B. Positive and negative charges

C. Water solubilizing groups only

D. Fat solubilizing groups only

A

38. (BEQ) Which of the following refers to a substance

that absorbs moisture but does not dissolve in it?

A. Hygroscopic

B. Dehydrating substance

C. Efflorescent

D. Deliquescent

A

39. Which of the following describes potential energy

A. Boiling water

B. Water inside a big dam

C. Water flowing over a dam

D. Burning gasoline

B

40. Which among the following is used as solar ray

protective or sun block

A Barium sulfate emetic

B. Titanium dioxide

C. Sodium nitrite

D. Antimony chloride

B

41. Which among the following is the allotropic form of phosphorus made by heating phosphorus at 200 degrees Celsius under a pressure of 1.2 GPa?

A. Black phosphorus

B. White phosphorus

C. Red phosphorus

D. Yellow phosphorus

A

42. Which of the following type of radiation has the

greatest penetrating power?

A Beta radiation

B. Gamma radiation

C. Sun rays

D. Alpha radiation

B

43. Which of the following pharmaceutical products requires that the method of preparation must be reflected in the label?

A Sterile water for injection USP

B Bacteriostatic water for Injection USP

C. Purified water USP

D. Milk of magnesia

C

44. A drug receptor may be all of the following, EXCEPT?

A. Isolable enzyme

B. Functional component of a cell membrane

C. Nucleic acid

D. Chelate

D

45. Compounds that results from a combination of electron donor and a metal forming a ring structure

A. Chelate

B. Prodrug

C. Lactam rin

A

46. Conformation of organic molecules is most commonly determined by which of the following analytical methods?

A. Nuclear magnetic resonance

B. Mass spectrophotometry

C. Optical rotation

D. pK determination

A

47. Which of the following statements describes cis- and trans isomerism?

I. Occurs only in organic compounds

II. Occurs in both organic and inorganic compounds

III. Trans-alkenes have lower solubility in Inert solvents than their cis counterparts

IV. Cis- and Trans-isomers often have different physical properties.

A. I, III, IV

B. II, III, IV

C. I, II, IV

D. I, II, III

A

48. Which of the following characterizes facilitated diffusion?

A. Energy requiring

B. Involves shifting of solvent

C. Carrier-specific

D. The movement against a concentration gradient

C

49. Which are the pharmaceutical applications of partition coefficient (K)?

I. Predicts where drug will concentrate in the body

II. Predicts adverse drug interactions in the body

III. Predicts solubility of a drug in water and fatty tissues in the body

IV. Predicts how well a chemical ingredient will mix with creams in consumer products

A. II, III, IV

B. I, II, IV

C. I, II, II

D. I, III, IV

D

50. Which of the following is the major organ for drug metabolism?

A. Liver

B. Small intestines

C. Kidney

D. Lungs

A

51. Which of the following therapeutic advantages CANNOT be obtained by the use of prodrugs?

Increase___

A. Water solubility

B. Oral absorption

C. Duration of action

D. Potency

D

52. Which of the following are benzodiazepine derivatives used as anxiolytics?

I. Imidazopyridine

II. Chlordiazepoxide

III. Alprazolam

IV. Diazepam

A. I, II, III, IV

B. I, II, IV

C. I, III, IV

D. II, III, IV

D

53. Which antibiotic is obtained from Streptomyces noursei?

A. Amphotericin B

B. Griseofulvin

C. Clindamycin

D. Nystatin

D

54. Simethicone is a component of several antacid formulations, how is it chemically classified?

A. Wax

B. Ketone

C. Silicone

D. Alcohol

C

55. Hydroxybenzoic acid is more commonly known as:

A. Citric acid

B. Oxalic acid

C. Salicylic acid

D. Lactic acid

C

56. Sensitivity of gram-negative bacilli to amoxicillin is attributed to its:

A. Carboxyl group

B. Nitro group

C. Hydroxyl group

D. Amino group

D

57. Which of the following is a first-generation urinary tract anti-infective

A. Nalidixic acid

B. Griseofulvin

C. Salicylic acid

D. Norfloxacin

A

58. Which of the following is the expectorant obtained from the phenol volatile oil Fagus grandiflora?

A. Tyloxapol

B. Guiafenes

C. Potassium iodide

D. Emetine

B

59. Which of the following is the metabolite of the red prontosil responsible for antimicrobial activity?

A. Sulfacetamide

B. Sulfamethoxazole

C. Sulfanilamide

D. Sulfapyridine

C

60. Which of the following combination therapy is the

treatment of choice for P. carinii pneumonia (PCP)

A. Trimethoprim and Sulfamethoxazole

B. Emetine and Dehydroemetine

C. Metronidazole and iodoquinol

D. Pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine

A

61. A combination of non-ionic surfactant with iodine is known as:

A. Povidone iodine

B. Tincture of iodine

C. Iodine in potassium iodide solution

D. Strong iodine solution

A

62. Which of the following is the strongest acid? (BEQ)

A. Lactic acid

B. Benzoic acid

C. Trichloroacetic acid

D. Acetic acid

C

63. Paracetamol chemically is a/ an:

A. Salicylate derivative

B. Azocaine derivative

C. Aniline derivative

D. Pyrazolone derivative

C

64. Although the prostaglandins are hormone-like, they may closely resemble which of the following chemically?

A. Proteins

B. Porphyrins

C. Lipids

D. Enzymes

C

65. What statement can BEST describe fats chemically?

A. Fats are steroids with one or more hydroxyl groups

B. Fats are esters of glycerin and fatty acids

C. Fats are compounds of glycerol, fatty acids, phosphoric acid, and choline

D. Fats are polypeptides

C

66. Which one of the following acids will undergo the least amount of ionization in water?

A. Acetic acid

B. Lactic acid

C. Salicylic acid

D. Boric acid

D

67. Petrolatum USP is NOT soluble in:

A. Chloroform

B. Ethyl alcohol

C. Ether

D. Benzene

B

68. All of the following substances are present in opium extract, EXCEPT:

A. Thebaine

B. Papaverine

C. Codeine

D. Methadone

D

69. Derivatives of benzyl sulfonyl urea are useful as:

A. Diuretic

B. Oral hypoglycemic

C. Anti-inflammatory

D. Spasmolytics

B

70. Which of the following anesthetics is NOT a volatile liquid?

A. Halothane

B. Ethyl chloride

C. Ether

D. Cyclopropane

D

71. The following are preservatives, EXCEPT:

A. Potassium sorbate

B. Undecylenic acid

C. Methyl paraben

D. Benzoic acid

B

72. Piperazine citrate, gentian violet, pyrvinium pamoate, and thiabendazole are examples of:

A. Antibiotics

B. Antiseptics

C. Anthelmintics

D. Dyes

C

73. Which are the uses of antimalarials?

I. Prevention of infection in individuals visiting malaria-endemic region

II. Treatment of malaria in individuals with suspected or confirmed infection

III. Prevention of antimalarial resistance

IV. Routine intermittent treatment of certain groups in endemic regions

A. II, III, IV

B. I, II, III

C. I, II, IV

D. I, III, IV

A

74. Which of the following antimalarials are used for chloroquine-resistant P. falciparum?

I. Pyrimethamine

II. Sulfonamide

III. Mefloquine

IV. Atovaquone

A. II, III

B. I, III

C. I, II

D. III, IV

D

75. Which of the following Angiotensin II receptor blockers has the greatest bioavailability?

A. Irbesartan

B. Losartan

C. Candesartan

D. Olmesartan

A

76. All of the following physicochemical constants may be useful to predict the solubility of a compound,

EXCEPT:

A. pH of solution

B. pKa of the compound

C. Dielectric constant

D. Valence of the atoms

D

77. What is the role of citric acid in promoting the analgesic potency of fentanyl effervescent tablets?

A. It improves the palatability of the fentanyl buccal tablet so it can be used in children

B. It increases salivary pH

C. It promotes the formation of fentanyl free base needed for absorption

D. It promotes dissolution of fentanyl into saliva

D

78. Which of the following is NOT a solvent for polyethylene glycol?

A. Ethyl alcohol

B. N-propanol

C. Water

D. Mineral oil

D

79. Which of the ff is NOT an alcohol?

A. Terpin hydrate

B. Sorbitol

C. Menthol

D. Eucalyptol

D

80. Which of the following are classified as GABA receptor modulators

I. Benzodiazepines

II. Barbiturates

III. Chloral hydrate

IV. Ethanol

A. II, III, IV

B. I, II, III

C. I, II, IV

D. I, III, IV

C

81. Which of the following functional group is susceptible to hydrolysis

A. R-CO-R

B. R-COOH

C. R-O-R

D. R-COOR

D

82. Mescaline is a/ an __ derivative

A. Steroid

B. Xanthine

C. Indole-ethylamine

D. Phenyl-ethylamine

D

83. Which of the following antineoplastic agents are obtained from biological sources?

I. Vinblastine

II. Nitrogen mustard

III. Alkyl sulfonate

IV. Paclitaxel

A. I, IV

B. I, III

C. I, II

D. II, III

A

84. Which of the following terms BEST describes a cofactor that is firmly bound to an apoenzyme?

A. Prosthetic group

B. Transferase

C. Holoenzyme

D. Cofactor

A.

85. Which of the following statements best characterize gamma amino butyric acid?

I. It is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain

II. It is biosynthesized from glutamic acid

III. High levels of GABA may be linked to anxiety or mood disorders

IV. GABA is degraded by a pyridoxal-dependent enzyme, producing butyric acid and succinic acid semi-aldehyde

A. III, IV

B. II, III

C. I, IV

D. I, II

D

86. Which of the following antineoplastic agents are alkylating agents?

I. Nitrosoureas

II. Purine antagonists

III. Methyl hydrazine

IV. Taxanes

A. I, III

B. III, IV

C. II, III

D. I, II

A

87. Weight of solute in a given quantity of solvent is referred to as:

A. Solvation

B. Volume

C. Solubility

D. Concentration

D

88. The milliequivalent weight of an acid depends on its:

A. Number of moles

B. Number of replaceable hydroxyl ions

C. Molecular weight

D. Number of replaceable hydrogen atoms

D

89. In the preparation of standard silver nitrate solution, care must be observed because it easily:

A. Dissolved and liquefies

B. Reduced by light

C. Oxidized by light

D. Adsorbed

C

90. Iodometry is an indirect analysis of:

A. Acids

B. Reducing agents

C. Oxidizing agents

D. Complex salts

C

91. In quantitative analysis, a burette with a glass stopcock is used to accurately measure ___ solutions

A. Acid

B. Blank

C. Alkali

D. Buffer

A

92. Which of the following is used as a precipitant for barbiturates?

A. Ethyl alcohol

B. Nitric acid

C. Fehling's solution

D. Magnesia mixture

B

93. The method used for observing changes in the crystalline form of a drug is:

A. Visual appraisal

B. X-ray diffraction

C. Fehling's solution

D. Magnesia mixture

B

94. In the bisulfite method of analysis, which among apparatus listed is used in the assay of aldehyde or ketone content of volatile oils?

A. Babcock bottle

B. Cassia flask

C. Biuret

D. Distilling apparatus

B

95. Chlorides may be precipitated by:

A. Potassium nitrate

B. Calcium chloride

C. Sodium nitrate

D. Silver nitrate

D

96. Ferric thiocyanate, produced by the reaction of ferric salts with ammonium thiocyanate has a __ color

A. Dark blue

B. Light violet

C. Dark yellow

D. Blood red

D

97. Which of the following is the concentration of a solution that contains one-gram equivalent weight of solute in a liter of solution?

A. Formal solution

B. Molal solution

C. Normal solution

D. Molar solution

C

98. Elements in atmosphere (BEQ)

I. Hydrogen is 14 times lighter than air

II. Nitrogen is heavier than Oxygen

III. Hydrogen was discovered by Cavendish

A. I only

B. I and II

C. I and III

D. II and III

E. I, II, III

C

99. States that the entropy of a pure, crystalline solid at absolute zero temperature is zero

A. Third law of thermodynamics

B. Second law of thermodynamics

C. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

D. First law of thermodynamics

A

100. If the ion product (Q) is greater than Ksp, the solution is: (BEQ)

A. Saturated

B. Supersaturated

C. Unsaturated

D. Cannot be determined

B