Lecture 1 - Risk and Return

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Last updated 4:10 PM on 10/7/26
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39 Terms

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NPV formula (EC333)

NPV = E(CF) / (1 + r)^T, where E(CF) = expected cash flow, r = discount rate, T = years until the cash flow arrives

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E(CF) - meaning

Expected cash flow: the probability-weighted average payout, e.g. 50% x 20,000 + 50% x 10,000 = 15,000

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Discount rate - interpretation

The 'exchange rate' between money in the future and money today; equal to the expected return investors require on an investment with a similar risk profile

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NPV example - certain cash flow

15,000 in 10 years at a 2% risk-free rate: 15,000 / 1.02^10 = 12,305

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NPV example - risky cash flow

Expected 15,000 in 10 years at a 6% discount rate: 15,000 / 1.06^10 = 8,376 - same expected cash flow, lower value because it is risky

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Two components of the discount rate

1) Time value of money - money today is worth more than money tomorrow; 2) Risk premium - compensation for bearing risk

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Risk premium - definition

Risk premium = discount rate - risk-free rate, e.g. 6% - 2% = 4%

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Core question of EC333

The price of risk: where does the risk premium (e.g. the 4%) come from?

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Financial assets valued with a risk-free (certain) cash flow

Mortgages, annuities/perpetuities, government bonds

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Financial assets with risky (uncertain) cash flows

Corporate bonds, stocks - most financial assets

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Common theme of financial economics (corporate finance and asset pricing)

Valuation: what is the fair value of an uncertain future cash flow? Fair = market price; Uncertain = risk; Future = time

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EC333 syllabus

Portfolio selection (mean-variance), CAPM, option pricing (Black-Scholes), derivatives in FX markets

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Market efficiency - normative vs positive perspective

Normative: how SHOULD risk be priced? (theory). Positive: how IS risk priced? (evidence)

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Zoom Technologies (March 2020) - lesson

Shares of tiny China-based Zoom Technologies (ZOOM) surged as investors confused it with Zoom Video (ZM) - prices can move for reasons unrelated to fundamentals, so markets are not perfectly efficient

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Newton and the South Sea Company (1720) - lesson

Newton sold at a 100% profit, then bought back in at a higher price and lost £20,000 - even very smart investors get caught in bubbles

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Buffett's bet (2008-2017) - lesson

An S&P 500 index fund (+85.4%) beat a hand-picked portfolio of hedge funds over 10 years after fees - markets are very hard to beat consistently (evidence for efficiency)

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Can markets be efficient if not everyone is rational?

Yes - market efficiency does not require all individuals to be fully rational; informed traders profit by trading against mistakes, pushing prices back, and random errors tend to cancel out

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Earthquake vs fire insurance - why price differently?

Same 1% probability and 1m loss, but fire risks are largely independent (losses average out across 1m houses) while earthquake risks are highly correlated (one quake hits many houses at once) - correlated risk cannot be diversified away, so it should cost more

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Key idea from the insurance example

Risk that cannot be diversified away (correlated risk) is the risk that gets priced - the seed of the CAPM

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Expected return - formula

r-bar = sum of Pr(r_i) x r_i : the probability-weighted average return

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Expected return - example

10% with probability 0.4 and 0% with probability 0.6: 0.4 x 10% + 0.6 x 0% = 4%

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Variance - formula

sigma^2 = sum of Pr(r_i) x (r_i - r-bar)^2 : measures how far returns spread around the average; standard deviation sigma is its square root

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Variance - example (10% w.p. 0.4, 0% w.p. 0.6)

sigma^2 = 0.4(10% - 4%)^2 + 0.6(0% - 4%)^2 = 0.0024, so sigma = 4.90%

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How does EC333 measure risk?

By variance or standard deviation of returns

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Five-stock data (Exxon, J&J, Microsoft, GE, JPMorgan, 2010-15) - what it shows

Individual weekly return std. devs of 1.81%-3.54% (average 2.84%), but an equal-weighted portfolio of all five has only 2.08% - diversification reduces risk in real data

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Why does a portfolio have lower risk than the average stock?

Stocks are not perfectly correlated, so their ups and downs partly cancel out

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Why doesn't diversification eliminate all risk?

Stocks share common market-wide movements; this correlated (systematic) risk remains and is what investors are paid for

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Who developed mean-variance portfolio analysis?

Harry Markowitz (1950s-60s; Nobel Prize 1990)

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Technical background needed for EC333

Probability (expected values, variance, covariance); calculus incl. constrained maximisation (Lagrange multipliers); linear algebra (matrices, vectors)

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[L2 - slides 42-49] Mean-variance frontier graph (slide 42) - what it shows

Each portfolio plotted by risk (std. dev, x-axis) and expected return (y-axis); the curve shows the best risk-return combinations from risky assets; adding a risk-free asset gives a straight line tangent to the curve at the tangency portfolio (highest Sharpe ratio)

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[L2] Two stocks A and B - setup

A returns 20% or 0% (50/50), B returns 10% or 0% (50/50), independent. E(rA) = 10%, sigmaA = 10%; E(rB) = 5%, sigmaB = 5%

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[L2] Portfolio expected return (weight w in A, 1-w in B)

r_p = w x 0.1 + (1-w) x 0.05 = 0.05 + 0.05w

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[L2] If you only care about expected return, which portfolio?

Invest everything in A (w = 1), the asset with the higher expected return

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[L2] Variance of a two-asset portfolio - formula

sigma_p^2 = w^2 sigma1^2 + 2w(1-w) cov(r1,r2) + (1-w)^2 sigma2^2, where cov(r1,r2) = rho x sigma1 x sigma2

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[L2] Portfolio variance when A and B are independent

Covariance = 0, so sigma_p^2 = w^2(0.1^2) + (1-w)^2(0.05^2)

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[L2] If you only care about risk, which portfolio?

Not all in B (the lower-risk asset): minimising variance gives 0.2 in A and 0.8 in B - mixing assets lowers risk because they are not perfectly correlated

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[L2] Diversification example - setup (C and D)

C and D are identical and independent: each returns 20% or 0% with equal probability (expected return 10%, sigma 10%)

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[L2] Diversification example - 50/50 portfolio of C and D

Returns 20% (prob 0.25), 10% (prob 0.5), 0% (prob 0.25): expected return still 10%, but sigma falls from 10% to 7.07%

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[L2] Key lesson of the C/D example

Diversification cuts risk without lowering expected return - a 'free lunch' from combining imperfectly correlated assets