Học: STF Test FULL

1. "Analyzing lessons learned from the completed test activities to determine changes needed for future iterations, releases, and projects" is a part of which Phase

A.​Test Analysis

B.​Test Planning

C.​Test Execution

D.​Test Completion

D

2. Consider the following statements about early test design

i. early test design can prevent fault multiplication

ii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix

iii. early test design can find faults

iv. early test design can cause changes to the requirements

v. early test design takes more effort

A.​i, iii & iv are true. ii & v are false

B.​i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false

C.​iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false

D.​iii is true, i, ii, iv & v are false

A

3. _________ the process where test basis is analyzed to identify testable features and define associated test conditions

A.​Test Analysis

B.​Testing Planning

C.​Test Monitoring & Control

D.​Test Design

A

4. "Determine the scope, risks and identify the objectives of testing" is a part of which phase

A.​Test planning

B.​Test closure

C.​Test control

D.​Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

A

5. Ensuring that test design starts during the requirements definition phase is important to enable which of the following test objectives?

A.​Finding defects through dynamic testing

B.​Gaining confidence in the system

C.​Finishing the project on time

D.​Preventing defects in the system

D

6. "Using the information gathered to improve test process maturity" is a part of which Phase

A.​Test Implementation

B.​Test Completion

C.​Test Analysis

D.​Test Planning

B

7. "Schedule test analysis and design tasks, test implementation, execution and evaluation" is a part of which phase

A.​Test completion

B.​Test monitoring and control

C.​Test planning

D.​Test closure

C

8. Test design

A.​is the process of running a test on the component or system under test, producing actual result(s)

B.​is the process of developing and prioritizing test procedures, creating test data and, optionally, preparing test harnesses and writing automated test scripts

C.​is the process where the test conditions are elaborated into high-level test cases, sets of high-level test cases, and other testware

D.​is the activity where test execution is assessed against the defined objectives

C

9. "Reporting defects based on the failures observed" is a part of which phase

A.​Test Execution

B.​Test Implementation

C.​Test Analysis

D.​Test Design

A

10. Testware

A.​Is needed only until the software is released into production or use

B.​The set of generic and specific conditions, agreed upon with the stakeholders for permitting a process to be officially completed

C.​Work products produced during the test process for use in planning, designing, executing, evaluating and reporting on testing

D.​Does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the released software system

C

11. "Creating test suites from the test procedures and (if any) automated test scripts" is an activity of which phase?

A.​Test Implementation

B.​Test Design

C.​Test Analysis

D.​Test Execution

A

12. Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation?

A.​Preparing test data and ensuring it is properly loaded in the test environment

B.​Creating test suites from the test procedures and (if any) automated test scripts

C.​Developing and prioritizing test procedures, and, potentially, creating automated test scripts

D.​Designing the Tests

D

13. Test log

A.​A set of several test cases for a component or system under test, where the post condition of one test is often used as the precondition for the next one.

B.​A test environment comprised of stubs and drivers needed to execute a test

C.​Any event occurring that requires investigation

D.​A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests

D

14. "Monitor and document progress, test coverage and exit criteria" is a part of which phase

A.​Test completion

B.​Test monitoring and control

C.​Test planning

D.​Test closure

B

15. Which of the following is a part of Test Completion?

i. Creating a test summary report to be communicated to stakeholders

ii. Reporting defects based on the failures observed.

iii. Finalizing and archiving testware.

iv. Analyzing lessons.

A.​All of above are true

B.​i , ii , iv are true and iii is false

C.​i , iii , iv are true and ii is false

D.​i , ii , iii are true and iv is false

C

16. Test suite

A.​Any event occurring that requires investigation

B.​A test environment comprised of stubs and drivers needed to execute a test

C.​A set of test cases or test procedures to be executed in a specific test cycle

D.​A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests

C

17. A set of test cases or test procedures to be executed in a specific test cycle

A.​Test Suite

B.​Test Cycle

C.​Test Driver

D.​Test Harness

A

18. Which is not the fundamental test process?

A.​None

B.​Test Planning

C.​Test Completion

D.​Test Design

A

19. Test harness

A.​A test environment comprised of stubs and drivers needed to execute a test

B.​A set of several test cases for a component or system under test, where the post condition of one test is often used as the precondition for the next one.

C.​Any event occurring that requires investigation

D.​A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests

A

20. Consider the following list of test process activities I Test Analysis II Test Completion III Test Implementation and Test Execution IV Test Planning V Test Design

A.​IV, I, V, II and III

B.​I, IV, V, III and II

C.​I, II, III, IV and V

D.​IV, I, V, III and II

D

21. Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test execution?

A.​Assessing if more tests are needed

B.​Measuring and analyzing results

C.​Reporting defects based on the failures observed

D.​Identifying test conditions or test requirements

C

22. Test completion

A.​is the activity where test execution is assessed against the defined objectives

B.​is the process of running a test on the component or system under test, producing actual result(s)

C.​is the activity of collecting data from completed test activities to consolidate experience, testware, and any other relevant information

D.​is the activity during which general testing objectives are transformed into tangible test conditions and test cases

C

23. During which test activity could faults be found most cost effectively?

A.​Execution

B.​Design

C.​Check Exit criteria completion

D.​Planning

D

24. Test basis documentation is analyzed in which phase of testing

A.​Test Design

B.​Test Analysis

C.​Test Planning

D.​Test Implementation

B

25. Test Execution

A.​is the process of developing and prioritizing test procedures, creating test data and, optionally, preparing test harnesses and writing automated test scripts

B.​is the activity during which general testing objectives are transformed into tangible test conditions and test cases

C.​is the activity where test execution is assessed against the defined objectives

D.​is the process where test suites are run in accordance with the test execution schedule

D

26. What is the purpose of exit criteria?

A.​To determine whether a test has passed

B.​To identify when a software system should be retired

C.​To prevent a task from being considered completed when there are still outstanding parts of the task which have not been finished

D.​To determine when a test has completed

C

27. Defining and prioritizing test conditions based on analysis of the test basis occurs during which activity in the fundamental test process?

A.​Test Design

B.​Test Analysis

C.​Testing Planning

D.​Test Completion

B

28. Checking test results and test logs against specified coverage criteria occurs during which activity in the fundamental test process?

A.​Test Analysis

B.​Test Implementation

C.​Test Monitoring & Control

D.​Test Execution

C

29. As part of which test process do you determine the exit criteria?

A.​Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

B.​Test planning

C.​Test closure

D.​Test control

B

30. Test Strategy is

A.​A high level document describing the principles, approach and major objectives of the organization regarding testing

B.​The degree, expressed as a percentage, to which a specified coverage item has been exercised by a test suite

C.​A high-level description of the test levels to be performed and the testing within those levels for an organization or program.

D.​The set of generic and specific conditions, agreed upon with the stakeholders for permitting a process to be officially completed

C

31. Analyzing the test Basis is a part of which phase

A. Test Analysis

B. Test Monitoring & Control

C. Test Design

D. Testing Planning

A

32. Software testing activities should start

A. when the requirements have been formally documented

B. As soon as possible in the development life cycle

C. during the design stage

D. as soon as the code is written

B

33. Acceptance criteria

A. Any event occurring that requires investigation

B. The criteria that a component or system must satisfy in order to be accepted by a user , customer , or other authorized entity

C. A set of several test cases for a component or system under test , where the post condition of one test is often used as the precondition for the next one .

D. A set of several test cases for a component or system under test , where the post condition of one test is often used as the precondition for the next one .

B

34. Designing the test environment set - up and identifying any required infrastructure and tools are a part of which phase

A. Test Completion

B. Test Implementation

C. Test Execution

D. Test Design

D

35. Testing process comprised of

A. All of the above

B. Test log and test status

C. Test plan and test cases

D. Defect tracking

A

36. Developing and prioritizing test procedures occurs during which activity in the fundamental test process?

A. Test Implementation

B. Test Analysis

C. Test Execution

D. Test Monitoring & Control

A

37. Comparing actual results with expected results occurs during which activity in the fundamental test process?

A. Test Analysis

B. Test Implementation

C. Test Monitoring & Control

D. Test Execution

D

38. " Evaluating the test basis and test items to identify defects of various types " is an activitiy of which phase?

A. Test Analysis

B. Testing Planning

C. Test Design

D. Test Monitoring & Control

A

39. Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major tasks? i. Developing and prioritizing test procedures, and, potentially, creating automated test scripts. ii. Creating test suites from the test procedures and (if any) automated test scripts iii. Preparing test data and ensuring it is properly loaded in the test environment iv. Determining the exit criteria.

A. i, ii, iii are true and iv is false

B. ii, iii, iv are true and i is false

C. i, ii are true and iii, iv are false

D. i, iv are true and ii is false

A

40. "Handing over the testware to the maintenance teams, other project teams, and/or other stakeholders who could benefit from its use" is a part of which Phase

A. Test Planning

B. Test Analysis

C. Test Completion

D. Test Execution

C

41. Which of the following is not phase of the Fundamental Test Process?

A.​ Test Planning and Control

B.​ Test implementation and Execution

C.​ Evaluating Exit criteria and reporting

D.​ Requirement Analysis

D

42. Test Summary report

A.​A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests

B.​Any event occurring that requires investigation

C.​A set of several test cases for a component or system under test, where the post condition of one test is often used as the precondition for the next one.

D.​A test report that provides an evaluation of the corresponding test items against exit criteria

D

43. Which of these tasks would you expect to perform during Test Analysis?

A.​Setting or defining test objectives

B.​Creating test suites from test procedures

C.​Analyzing lessons learned for process improvement.

D.​Analyzing the test basis

D

Test Implementation:

A. is the activity during which general testing objectives are transformed into tangible test conditions and test cases

B. is the process of running a test on the component or system under test, producing actual result(s)

C. is the process of developing necessary testware for test execution, including sequencing the test cases into test procedures

D. is the activity where test execution is assessed against the defined objectives

kp B

The main focus of acceptance testing is:

A. Testing for a business perspective

B. Testing the system with other systems

C. Ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users

D. Finding faults in the system

A

The term confirmation testing is synonymous to

A.Exhaustive testing

B.Regression testing

C.Exploratory testing

D.Re- testing

D

Which of the following is a major objective of test planning?

A.Determining the test approach.

B.Preparing test specifications

C.Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D.Measuring and analyzing results

A

What is an equivalence partition (also known as an equivalence class)?

A.An input or output range of values such t hat each value in the range becomes a test case

B.An input or output range of values such that every tenth value in the range becomes a test case

C.A set of test cases for testing classes of objects

D.An input or output range of values such that only one value in the range becomes a test case

D

Postal rates for 'light letters' are 25p up to l0g, 35p up to 50g plus an extra l0p for each additional 25g up to l00g. Which test inputs (in grams) would be selected using equivalence partitioning?

A.4, 15, 65, 92,159

B.10,50,75,100

C.5, 20, 40, 60, 80

D.8,42,82,102

A

What technique captures system requirements that contain logical conditions?

A.Equivalence partition

B.Boundary value

C.State transition

D.Decision table

D

Consider the following state transition diagram of a two-speed hair dryer, which is operated by pressing its one button. The first press of the button turns it on to Speed 1, second press to Speed 2 and the third press turns it off. Which of the following series of state transitions below will provide 0-switch coverage? (Unit07_IM11)

A.C,B,A

B.B,C,A

C.A,C,B

D.A,B,C

D

Select the correct statement related to test techniques;

I. Software program should be running to perform dynamic analysis

II. Software program should be running to perform static analysis

III. Control flow analysis is part of dynamic analysis

IV. Data flow analysis is part of static analysis

A.I, II true. III, IV false

B.I, IV true. II, III false

C.I, III true. II, IV false

D.I true. II, III, IV false

B

2. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective?

A.To find faults in the software

B.To prove that the software has no faults

C.To give confidence in the software

D.To find performance problems

B

What is the definition of debugging?

A.Testing/checking whether the software performs correctly

B.Checking that no unintended consequence have occurred as a result of a fix

C.Identifying the cause of a defect, repairing the code and checking the fix is correct

D.Checking that a previously reported defect has been corrected

C

Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?

A.To find faults in the software

B.To assess whether t he software is ready for release

C.To demonstrate that the software doesn't work

D.To prove that the software is correct

D

Drivers are also known as

i. Spade

ii. Test harness

iii. Scaffolding

A.i , ii are true and iii is false

B.i , iii are true and ii is false

C.ii , iii are true and i is false

D.All of the above are true

C

1. Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?

A. Incidents require invest igat ion and/or correction

B. Incidents may be raised against user requirements

C. Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test

D. Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ

C

2. Which of the following details would most likely be included in an incident report? I. Identification of the test item (configuration item) and environment. II. Development process characteristics such as organization stability and test process used. III. A review of the test basis, such as requirements, architecture, design, interfaces. IV. Scope or degree of the impact on the stakeholders interests

A. III and IV

B. I and IV

C. II and III

D. I, II and III

B

3. Test Summary report

A. A document summarizing testing activities and results. It also contains an evaluation of the corresponding test items against exit criteria

B. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests

C. Any event occurring that requires investigation

D. A set of several test cases for a component or system under test, where the post condition of one test is often used as the precondition for the next one.

A

4. Which one of the following BEST describes the purpose of a priority rating in an incident report?

A. To show progress of testing

B. To show how quickly the problem should be fixed

C. To show which parts of the system are affected by the incident

D. To show how much it would cost to fix the defect

B

5. Time constraint for each defect priority levels

A. maybe change to adapt to project or company

B. always fixed

C. maybe change to adapt to stakeholder's request

D. None of above

A

6. 'Defect Density' calculated in terms of

A. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by the size of the system

B. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by that test phase and any other means after wards

C. The number of defects identified in the component or system divided by the number of defects found by a test phase

D. The number of defects identified in a component or system divided by the size of the component or the system

A

7. Which of the following are false?

A Incidents should always be investigated and resolved

B. Incidents can be analyzed to assist in test process improvement

C. Incidents occur when expected and actual results differ

D. An incident can be raised against documentation

B

8. Software Defects/ Bugs are normally classified as per:

A. Priority

B. All of above

C. Status

D. Severity

B

9. Closed defects include defects in status

A. accepted/deferred

B. cancelled/rejected

C. All of above

D. closed

C

10. Based on the IEEE Standard for Software Test Documentation (IEEE Std 829 - 1998), which of the following sections are part of the test summary report?

a) Summary

b) Test incident report identifier

c) Test deliverables

d) Risks and contingencies

e) Variances

f) Approvals

g) Output specifications

A. a, b and f

B. a, c and d

C. a, d and e

D. a, e and f

D

11. Set a defect severity = "Medium" because

A. the defect of interface

B. the defect making the system crash

C. the defect making the minor function work incorrectly

D. the defect making the major function work incorrectly

C

12. What is covered in the variances section of the Test Summary Report?

A. The variances between the defects found and the defects fixed

B. The variances between the weekly status reports and the final summary report

C. The variances between the test cases executed and the total number of test cases

D. The variances between what was planned for testing and what was actually tested

D

13. How many defect priority levels?

A. 3

B. 2

C. 5

D. 4

D

14. What information need not be included when defect logging?

A. Test environment details

B. Severity, priority

C. How to reproduce the fault

D. How to fix the fault

D

15. Set a defect severity = "Critical" because

A. the defect making the system crash

B. the defect making the major function work incorrectly

C. the defect making the minor function work incorrectly

D. the defect of interface

A

16. The Defect Tracking will need to capture these phases for each bug I. Phase injected II. Phase detected III. Phase fixed IV. Phase removed

A. I, II and IV

B. I, III and IV

C. I, II and III

D. II, III and IV

D

17. Which of the following metrics would be most useful to monitor during test execution?

A. Number of defects found and fixed

B. Percentage of requirements for which a test has been written

C. Number of test environments remaining to be configured

D. Percentage of test cases written

A

18. Bug/Defect life cycle

A. Reported, Fixed, Assigned, Closed

B. Assigned, Reported, Fixed, Closed

C. Reported, Assigned, Fixed, Closed

D. Assigned, Reported, Closed, Fixed

C

19. Consider the following statements

i. A incident may be closed without being fixed

ii. Incidents may not be raised against documentation

iii. The final stage of incident tracking is fixing

iv. The incident record does not include information on test environments

v. Incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs the test

A. i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false

B. i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false

C. ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false

D. i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false

A

20. Test Progress Report

A. is the ultimate at-a-glance dashboard for your test case execution

B. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests

C. A document summarizing testing activities and results. It also contains an evaluation of the corresponding test items against exit criteria

D. A set of several test cases for a component or system under test, where the post condition of one test is often used as the precondition for the next one.

A

21. Which of the following items need not to be given in an incident report?

A. The location and instructions on how to correct the fault

B. Test data and used environment

C. The version number of the test object

D. Identification of the test case that failed

A

22. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be included in an incident report?

A. Life cycle process in which the incident was discovered

B. Date the incident was discovered.

C. Suggestions for correcting the problem

D Degree of impact on stakeholder interests

C

23. You have been testing software that will be used to track credit card purchases. You have found a defect that causes the system to crash, but only if a person has made and voided 10 purchases in a row. What would be the proper priority and severity rating for this defect?

A. Priority low, severity low

B. Priority low, severity high

C. Priority high, severity high

D. Priority high, severity low

B

24. An incident logging system

A. Only records defects

B. Is of limited value

C. Should be used only by the test team

D. Is a valuable source of project information during testing if it contains all incidents

D

25. During test execution, the test manager describes the following situation to the project team: '90% of the test cases have been run. 20% of the test cases have identified defects. 127 defects have been found. 112 defects have been fixed and have passed confirmation testing. Of the remaining 15 defects, project management has decided that they do not need to be fixed prior to release.' Which of the following is the most reasonable interpretation of this test status report?

A. The remaining 10% of test cases should be run prior to release.

B. The remaining 15 defects should be confirmation tested prior to release.

C. The system is now ready for release with no further testing or development effort.

D. The programmers should focus their attention on fixing the remaining known defects prior to release

A

26. Set a defect severity = "Serious" because

A. the defect of interface

B. the defect making the major function work incorrectly

C. the defect making the minor function work incorrectly

D. the defect making the system crash

B

27. Open defects include defects in status

A. All of above

B. error/reported

C. corrected/fixed

D.assigned

A

28. What is defect management?

A. The process of combining components or systems into larger assemblies

B. The process of testing to determine the maintainability of a software product.

C. The process of testing to determine the functionality of a software product.

D. The process of recognizing, investigating, taking action and disposing of defects

D

29. __________is monitoring defects from the time of recording until satisfactory resolution has been determined

A. None of the answers is correct

B. Quality measurement

C. Quality management

D.Defect tracking

D

31. What information need not be included in a test incident report?

A. How to reproduce the fault

B. Severity & priority

C. How to fix the fault

D. Test environment details

C

32. Which set of metrics can be used for monitoring of the test execution?

A. Number of detected defects, testing cost

B. Percentage of completed tasks in the preparation of test environment; test cases prepared

C. Number of test cases run / not run; test cases passed / failed

D. Number of residual defects in the test object

C

33. In a test summary report, the project's test leader makes the following statement, The payment processing subsystem fails to accept payments from American Express cardholders, which is considered a must-work feature for this release.' This statement is likely to be found in which of the following sections?

A. Executive summary

B. Conclusion

C. Introduction

D. Test Execution

B

34. During the testing of a module tester 'X' finds a bug and assigned it to developer. But developer rejects the same, saying that it's not a bug. What 'X' should do?

A. Send to the detailed information of the bug encountered and check the reproducibility

B. Assign the same bug to another developer

C. Retest the module and confirm the bug

D Report the issue to the test manager and try to settle with the developer.

A

35. Which of the following are valid objectives for incident reports? i. Provide developers and other parties with feedback about the problem to enable identification, isolation and correction as necessary. ii. Provide ideas for test process improvement. iii. Provide a vehicle for assessing tester competence. iv. Provide testers with a means of tracking the quality of the system under test.

A. i, ii, iii

B. i, iii, iv

C. i, ii, iv

D. ii, iii, iv

C

36. As a test manager you are asked for a test summary report. Concerning test activities and according to IEEE 829 Standard, what should you consider in your report?

A. The number of test cases using Black Box techniques

B. A summary of the major testing activities, events and its status in respect of meeting goals

C. Training taken by members of the test team to support the test effort

D. Overall evaluation of each development work item

B

37. Test coverage measures

A the amount of testing performed passed by a set of tests

B. the amount of testing performed by a set of tests passed

C. the amount of testing performed not passed by a set of tests

D the amount of testing performed by a set of tests

B

38. ________indicates how important it is to fix the bug and when it should be fixed

A. Severity

B. None of the above

C. Priority

D. All of the above

D

39. Which of the following is a valid objective of an incident report?

A. Gives a statistical way to determine which modules to redesign

B. Provides test management ideas for test process improvement

C. Provides developers a way to critique their individual work processes

D. Prove that the tester is contributing to the quality of the system

B

According to the ISTQB Glossary, what do we call a document that describes any event that occurred during testing which requires further investigation?

A. A defect report

B. An incident report

C. A test summary report

D. A bug report

B

40. Bug/Defect life cycle

A. Assigned, Reported, Closed, Fixed

B. Assigned, Reported, Fixed, Closed

C. Reported, Fixed, Assigned, Closed

D. Reported, Assigned, Fixed, Closed

D

Given the following decision table: Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID? (Unit07_IM1)

........Cái bảng......

A.31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 70 and excess is 2500

B.23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 90 and excess is 2500

C.43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 1000

D.51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 500

B

According to the ISTQB Syllabus, which of the following are test techniques? I. Experienced based II. Defect based III. Static and dynamic analysis IV. Structure based

A.III is true. I, II, IV false

B.None of the above

C.All of the above

D.I, IV true. II, III false

C

. An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004 The boundary values for testing this field are:

A.1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005

B.1899,1900,2004,2005

C.1900, 2004

D.0,1900,2004,2005

B

Given the following decision table: (Unit07_IM4) What is the expected action for each of the following test cases? Joe is a smoker who will be skiing and has an existing medical condition. Sue is a non-smoker who does not ski and does not have an existing medical condition.

A.Insure Joe offering no discount, insure Sue offering no discount

B.Insure Joe, offering a 10% discount and insure Sue offering a 10% discount

C.Do not insure Joe and insure Sue offering no discount

D.Do not insure Joe and insure Sue offering a 15% discount

D