MAXILLOFACIAL TRAUMA

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Last updated 3:06 AM on 10/1/26
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286 Terms

1
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What are the common causes of maxillofacial trauma?

Vehicular/motor vehicle accidents are a major cause; other causes include interpersonal violence, sports injuries, industrial/work-related injuries, and accidental trauma.

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What are the ABCDEs of initial trauma assessment?

Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, and Exposure/environmental control.

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What should be assessed first in a patient with multiple traumatic injuries?

Airway and breathing, followed by circulation, disability/neurologic status, and complete exposure.

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What can cause upper airway obstruction in an unconscious trauma patient?

Blood clots, loose teeth, dentures or other foreign bodies, vomitus, and soft-tissue obstruction of the oropharynx or larynx.

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What is the initial management of airway obstruction from blood, vomitus, or foreign material?

Clear/suction the airway of obstructing debris, then assess ventilation and oxygenation.

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When should artificial ventilation be initiated in trauma?

Immediately when spontaneous ventilation is inadequate.

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What is a rapid method of securing the airway in a trauma patient when appropriate?

Endotracheal intubation, commonly via the orotracheal route.

8
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When may a surgical airway such as cricothyrotomy or tracheostomy be required in maxillofacial trauma?

When endotracheal intubation is impossible or inappropriate, or when a definitive/prolonged airway is required.

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When may tracheostomy be considered after trauma?

When prolonged airway support is anticipated or when other methods of securing the airway are unsuitable.

10
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How should significant external bleeding be initially controlled in maxillofacial trauma?

Direct pressure/compression; definitive vessel control may require ligation or cautery when pressure is inadequate.

11
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When is IV fluid or blood replacement indicated in maxillofacial trauma?

When significant blood loss or hemodynamic compromise is present or anticipated; resuscitation should be guided by the overall trauma status.

12
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When should facial and scalp lacerations generally be repaired?

After the patient is medically stabilized and as soon as safely practical.

13
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When is primary closure of a facial laceration appropriate?

When the wound is adequately cleaned/debrided and there is minimal tissue loss with viable wound edges.

14
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What associated injuries should be actively assessed in maxillofacial trauma?

Cervical spine, neurologic, ocular/orbital, dental, and other systemic injuries.

15
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Which specialties may need concomitant involvement in significant maxillofacial trauma?

Neurosurgery and ophthalmology, among others, depending on associated injuries.

16
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Why is complete exposure important during trauma assessment?

To identify occult injuries in other body regions while maintaining temperature and preventing hypothermia.

17
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What prophylaxis should be considered for contaminated traumatic wounds?

Tetanus prophylaxis according to vaccination history and wound characteristics; antibiotics may be indicated for selected contaminated, open, or high-risk wounds.

18
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When should definitive maxillofacial reconstruction generally be performed?

After life-threatening injuries have been stabilized and the patient's medical condition permits definitive repair.

19
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Why does maxillofacial trauma management require a multidisciplinary approach?

Trauma may involve multiple organs and regions, requiring coordinated management of airway, neurologic, ocular, skeletal, dental, and soft-tissue injuries.

20
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What are the main goals of definitive maxillofacial trauma management?

Stabilize the patient and restore function, skeletal form, occlusion, and facial aesthetics as safely as possible.

21
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Why is knowledge of maxillofacial anatomy important in fracture management?

It helps predict fracture patterns, understand displacement, identify functional consequences, and plan reduction and fixation.

22
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What is the buttress system of the facial skeleton?

A network of relatively strong horizontal and vertical bony structures that distributes and resists traumatic forces and provides a framework for facial reconstruction.

23
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Why are facial buttresses important during fracture repair?

They help guide restoration of facial height, width, projection, and structural stability; fixation is often strategically placed along these strong skeletal pillars.

24
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What are the major horizontal facial buttresses?

The supraorbital/superior orbital region, infraorbital rims, zygomatic arches, and alveolar/palatal components are commonly described as horizontal buttress structures.

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What are the major vertical facial buttresses?

The nasomaxillary, zygomaticomaxillary, and pterygomaxillary buttresses are major vertical load-bearing structures.

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What is the clinical importance of the vertical facial buttresses?

They provide major structural support and are important reference points for restoring facial skeletal alignment during reconstruction.

27
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What is the zygomaticomaxillary buttress?

The strong posterolateral maxillary/zygomaticomaxillary region that transmits forces between the maxilla and zygoma.

28
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What is the pterygomaxillary buttress?

The posterior maxillary buttress associated with the pterygoid plates and posterior maxilla that contributes to midface structural support.

29
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Why must facial height and the maxillary dental-palatal relationship be restored in midface fractures?

To restore normal occlusion, mastication, facial proportions, and overall midface function.

30
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What imaging modality is central to evaluation of most significant facial skeletal trauma?

CT, particularly thin-section/fine-cut CT for detailed evaluation of facial fractures.

31
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Why is fine-cut facial CT sometimes performed after initial trauma imaging?

It provides higher-resolution detail of facial bones and fracture anatomy but may take additional time and is best performed once the patient is sufficiently stable.

32
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What is the role of CT in acute maxillofacial trauma?

It defines fracture patterns, displacement, orbital/sinus involvement, and associated injuries and helps guide operative planning.

33
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What should be examined during the physical examination of a patient with maxillofacial trauma?

Occlusion, trismus, skeletal stability, facial asymmetry, extraocular movements, sensory deficits, bony step-offs, lacerations, ecchymoses, and other signs of fracture.

34
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How can midface instability be assessed clinically?

By careful bimanual palpation for abnormal mobility, tenderness, asymmetry, and bony step-offs.

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What are soft-tissue injuries?

Injuries involving tissues other than bone, including skin, muscle, tendon, ligament, fascia, nerves, fat, blood vessels, and synovial structures.

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What are the two broad categories of soft-tissue injuries?

Open wounds and closed injuries.

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What are common types of open soft-tissue wounds?

Abrasions, lacerations, avulsions, and puncture wounds.

38
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What is an abrasion?

Superficial loss of skin or epithelium caused by friction or scraping.

39
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What is a laceration?

A traumatic tear of soft tissue with wound edges that may be linear or irregular/jagged.

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What is an avulsion?

Traumatic separation or detachment of tissue from its normal attachment, which may involve skin and deeper structures.

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What is a puncture wound?

A relatively narrow wound caused by a pointed object penetrating tissue.

42
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What are common closed soft-tissue injuries?

Contusions, hematomas, strains, and sprains.

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What is a contusion?

Blunt-force soft-tissue injury causing bleeding and tissue damage without an open wound.

44
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What is a hematoma?

A localized collection of blood within tissue or a potential space caused by bleeding from injured vessels.

45
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What symptoms commonly occur with soft-tissue injuries?

Pain, swelling, bruising/ecchymosis, reduced function, or a combination of these.

46
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What are the basic early measures for uncomplicated soft-tissue injuries?

Rest/protection, cold application, appropriate compression, and elevation when appropriate.

47
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What does the traditional NO HARM protocol stand for?

No Heat, No Alcohol, No Running or strenuous activity, and No Massage during the early phase of acute soft-tissue injury.

48
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What is the purpose of the NO HARM measures in acute soft-tissue injury?

To minimize additional bleeding, swelling, and tissue damage during the early inflammatory phase.

49
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When may a splint or cast be required for a soft-tissue injury?

When the injury is significant or associated with instability, fracture, or another condition requiring immobilization.

50
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When is surgery indicated for a soft-tissue injury?

When there is significant tissue disruption, functional injury, devitalized tissue, uncontrolled bleeding, complex laceration, or another structural problem requiring repair.

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How long does uncomplicated soft-tissue injury recovery commonly take?

Many uncomplicated injuries recover over several weeks, but recovery varies widely according to the tissue involved, severity, age, health, and treatment.

52
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What is the most frequently traumatized facial bone?

The nasal bones, because of their prominent and exposed location.

53
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Why must the nasal septum be carefully evaluated in nasal trauma?

Septal fractures and hematomas can cause obstruction and, if untreated, septal cartilage necrosis and subsequent saddle-nose deformity.

54
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What is the major complication of an untreated nasal septal hematoma?

Septal cartilage necrosis leading to saddle-nose deformity; infection may also cause a septal abscess.

55
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Why can a septal infection become dangerous?

Infection can potentially spread to adjacent structures, and severe complications can include intracranial infection.

56
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What are the two major components of the external nose?

A bony framework and a cartilaginous framework.

57
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What structures contribute to the bony framework of the nose?

The paired nasal bones, frontal process of the maxilla, and contributions from the frontal bone and other adjacent facial bones.

58
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What major structures form the internal nasal boundaries?

The nasal septum and surrounding bones, including portions of the ethmoid, sphenoid, maxilla, palatine, and inferior turbinate structures.

59
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What are the major arterial sources of nasal blood supply?

Branches of both the external carotid and internal carotid systems.

60
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Which external carotid branches contribute to nasal blood supply?

The facial and maxillary arterial systems, including the sphenopalatine, greater palatine, superior labial, and lateral nasal branches.

61
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Which internal carotid branch contributes to nasal blood supply?

The ophthalmic artery through the anterior and posterior ethmoidal arteries.

62
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What nerves provide sensory innervation to the nose?

Branches of the trigeminal nerve, particularly V1 and V2; autonomic fibers also travel through the pterygopalatine/sphenopalatine region.

63
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What cranial nerve carries olfactory sensation from the nasal cavity?

Cranial nerve I, the olfactory nerve.

64
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What are common signs of nasal bone fracture?

Nasal deformity, edema, ecchymosis/hematoma, tenderness, abnormal mobility or crepitus, nasal obstruction, and epistaxis.

65
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What is the most important initial method of diagnosing an isolated nasal bone fracture?

Clinical examination, including inspection and palpation, with assessment of nasal airway and septum.

66
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Are routine plain radiographs required for uncomplicated isolated nasal fractures?

Usually no; diagnosis is primarily clinical, and CT is reserved for suspected associated facial fractures or complications.

67
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What is the role of CT in nasal trauma?

CT is useful when more extensive facial fractures, orbital injury, NOE injury, skull-base injury, or other complex trauma is suspected.

68
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What is the purpose of controlling epistaxis before examining a nasal fracture?

It improves visualization and helps prevent ongoing blood loss from interfering with assessment.

69
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What is the general management principle for a displaced nasal fracture?

Reduce the fracture when deformity or functional obstruction warrants correction, with timing based on edema, displacement, and patient factors.

70
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When is closed reduction commonly performed for adult nasal fractures?

Typically after swelling has subsided but before the fracture consolidates, commonly within about 7-14 days after injury.

71
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When is closed reduction commonly performed for pediatric nasal fractures?

Earlier than in adults because healing occurs rapidly, often within several days and generally within about 7 days.

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What types of nasal fractures are generally suitable for closed reduction?

Selected recent, relatively noncomminuted fractures with displacement that can be adequately reduced and stabilized.

73
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Which instrument is commonly used to manipulate and reduce displaced nasal bones?

Walsham forceps are commonly used for grasping/reducing nasal bones; an elevator may also be used.

74
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What is the traditional use of Asch forceps in nasal trauma?

Asch forceps are primarily designed for manipulation/reduction of the nasal septum rather than being the standard instrument for nasal bone reduction.

75
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What is a Boies elevator used for in nasal fracture management?

It can be used to elevate and reposition depressed nasal bone fragments.

76
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What is the general management of an open nasal fracture?

Thorough wound evaluation and cleaning, appropriate fracture management, and tetanus prophylaxis; antibiotics are considered when contamination, open fracture, or infection risk warrants them.

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What is the purpose of nasal packing after reduction of selected nasal fractures?

To provide internal support/splinting and help control bleeding.

78
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What material may be used for traditional nasal packing?

Vaseline-coated gauze or commercially prepared packs such as Merocel may be used depending on the situation.

79
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How does a Merocel nasal pack work?

It expands after absorbing fluid, helping provide pressure and support within the nasal cavity.

80
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What is an important principle when using nasal packing?

The pack should be placed carefully and monitored; prolonged packing increases discomfort and infection risk and does not automatically require prophylactic antibiotics in every patient.

81
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Is prophylactic systemic antibiotic therapy mandatory for every patient with nasal packing?

No. Antibiotic use depends on the indication, contamination, infection risk, type/duration of packing, and local practice; routine antibiotics are not universally required.

82
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What is posterior nasal packing used for?

It is used for selected posterior epistaxis that cannot be controlled with anterior measures, not routinely for uncomplicated nasal fracture management.

83
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Why should a patient with suspected posterior epistaxis be monitored carefully after posterior packing?

Posterior packing can impair ventilation, cause hypoxia, and has cardiopulmonary complications, so appropriate monitoring is required.

84
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What is the main reason nasal fractures may require surgical treatment?

To restore nasal form and function when there is significant displacement, deformity, obstruction, or associated structural injury.

85
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What determines the site and displacement of a mandibular fracture?

The direction and magnitude of external force, the anatomy of the mandible, and the forces exerted by attached muscles.

86
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Why is the mental foramen clinically important in mandibular fractures?

It represents a potential area of structural weakness and is associated with the course of the mental nerve, so fractures near it may cause lower-lip/chin sensory deficits.

87
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What is a greenstick fracture?

An incomplete fracture in which the bone bends and partially breaks rather than completely separating, commonly seen in children and adolescents.

88
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Why are greenstick mandibular fractures often relatively well aligned?

The younger mandible is more flexible and incompletely fractured, so the fragments may remain relatively stable.

89
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What is a favorable mandibular fracture?

A fracture whose orientation allows muscle forces to maintain or improve contact between the fracture fragments, limiting displacement.

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What is an unfavorable mandibular fracture?

A fracture whose orientation allows muscle forces to separate/displace the fracture fragments.

91
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Why is fracture favorability important in mandibular fractures?

It helps predict displacement and influences whether closed or open reduction and fixation may be appropriate.

92
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What muscles are important in determining displacement of anterior mandibular fracture segments?

The mylohyoid, geniohyoid, genioglossus, and anterior belly of the digastric contribute to forces acting on anterior segments.

93
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What muscles are important in determining displacement of posterior mandibular fracture segments?

The masseter, medial pterygoid, temporalis, and lateral pterygoid contribute substantially to forces acting on posterior/condylar segments.

94
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What is the general effect of the suprahyoid muscles on a mandibular fracture segment?

They can pull portions of the mandible downward and posteriorly depending on the fracture location.

95
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What is the general effect of the elevator muscles of mastication on posterior mandibular segments?

Masseter, medial pterygoid, and temporalis generally elevate and stabilize posterior mandibular segments, while the lateral pterygoid can pull the condylar segment anteromedially.

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What mandibular fracture pattern can result from a direct blow to the mandibular body?

The direct side may fracture, with an additional fracture potentially occurring at the contralateral angle or condylar region because of transmitted forces.

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What fracture pattern can result from a direct blow to the mandibular symphysis?

A parasymphyseal fracture and/or bilateral condylar fractures may occur because force is transmitted posteriorly.

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What is the most important functional sign of a mandibular fracture?

Malocclusion, particularly a new change in the patient's pre-injury occlusion.

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What sensory deficit suggests injury to the inferior alveolar/mental nerve in a mandibular fracture?

Hypoesthesia or numbness of the lower lip and chin/mental region.

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What is the correct nerve associated with lower-lip and chin sensation in mandibular fractures?

The mental nerve, a terminal branch of the inferior alveolar nerve from V3.