M3: 125 Pt Care - Ch 9, 10, 11, 19

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Last updated 12:06 AM on 9/24/26
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233 Terms

1
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A patient has microorganisms living on the skin without signs of infection. What term describes these microorganisms?

Normal flora

2
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A microorganism capable of causing disease or infection is best described as what?

Pathogen

3
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Which microorganism is single-celled, can reproduce independently, and may be classified as Gram-positive or Gram-negative?

Bacteria

4
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A radiographer identifies round bacterial cells arranged in grape-like clusters. Which organism is represented by this morphology?

Staphylococcus

5
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Which bacterial form is associated with Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

Bacillus (rod-shaped bacterium)

6
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Which organism requires a host cell to reproduce?

Virus

7
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A microorganism contains genetic material protected by a protein capsid and cannot reproduce independently. What is it?

Virus

8
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Which type of microorganism includes molds and yeasts?

Fungi

9
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A student observes branched filament-like structures and spore formation in a fungal specimen. What type of fungus is being described?

Mold

10
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Which microorganism is an abnormal infectious protein with no DNA or RNA?

Prion

11
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Which serious neurologic diseases are associated with prions according to the study material?

Mad cow disease and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

12
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Which type of microorganism is complex, single-celled, and may be motile or nonmotile?

Protozoa

13
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Which protozoan disease is associated with mosquito transmission?

Malaria

14
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A patient with severely compromised immunity develops an opportunistic infection. Which organism is identified in the study material as a common cause?

Pneumocystis carinii

15
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Which protozoan infection is associated with the GI tract and diarrhea?

Giardiasis

16
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Which sexually transmitted disease listed in the study material is caused by a protozoan?

Trichomoniasis

17
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A microorganism normally lives in the gastrointestinal tract without causing disease. What is this relationship called?

Normal flora

18
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Which link in the chain of infection identifies the microorganism that causes disease?

Infectious agent

19
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Which link identifies the environment where a pathogen lives and flourishes?

Reservoir

20
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A pathogen is living and multiplying in a human host. Which link of the chain of infection is represented by the human?

Reservoir

21
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Which chain-of-infection link describes how a pathogen leaves its reservoir?

Portal of exit

22
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Coughing and sneezing can provide which link in the chain of infection?

Portal of exit

23
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Which chain-of-infection link describes how a microorganism travels from one person or place to another?

Mode of transmission

24
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Which chain-of-infection link describes how a microorganism enters a new host?

Portal of entry

25
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A pathogen enters through the nose and mouth. Which chain-of-infection link is represented?

Portal of entry

26
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Which person is considered a susceptible host?

A person capable of becoming infected

27
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Which sequence correctly represents the six links of the chain of infection?

Infectious agent → Reservoir → Portal of exit → Transmission → Portal of entry → Susceptible host

28
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A pathogen requires moisture, nutrients, and an appropriate temperature to flourish. What link of the chain is being described?

Reservoir

29
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Which body structure is an example of a portal of entry?

Mucous membrane

30
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A patient has an open wound through which microorganisms can enter. What is the wound functioning as?

Portal of entry

31
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Which characteristic helps a pathogen attach to cells, invade tissues, and avoid host defenses?

Virulence factor

32
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A pathogen has characteristics that allow it to cause greater damage to the host. What term describes these characteristics?

Virulence factors

33
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An infection associated with receiving healthcare is called what?

Healthcare-associated infection (HAI)

34
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What term traditionally refers to an infection acquired in a healthcare facility?

Nosocomial infection

35
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Which organism is associated with healthcare-associated colitis and forms spores?

Clostridioides difficile

36
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A patient develops a healthcare-associated infection after more than 48 hours of hospitalization. Which infection is emphasized in the study material as commonly acquired in this setting?

Clostridioides difficile colitis

37
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Which route of transmission requires physical contact between an infected person and another person?

Direct contact

38
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A contaminated x-ray table transmits microorganisms to another patient. What is the contaminated table considered?

Fomite

39
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What term describes a contaminated inanimate object that can transmit infection?

Fomite

40
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A mosquito transmits an infectious organism from one person to another. What route of transmission is involved?

Vector

41
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Which living carrier is a classic example of a vector for malaria?

Mosquito

42
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A patient becomes infected after consuming contaminated water. Which route of transmission is involved?

Vehicle

43
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Which route of transmission involves food, water, blood, or another contaminated substance?

Vehicle

44
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Respiratory droplets produced during coughing, sneezing, speaking, or singing are associated with which route?

Droplet transmission

45
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Which type of transmission involves small droplet nuclei that can remain suspended in air for long periods?

Airborne transmission

46
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A patient with tuberculosis is being transported for imaging. Which transmission route is most important?

Airborne transmission

47
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Which three diseases are identified in the study material as airborne diseases?

Tuberculosis, rubeola, and varicella

48
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Which disease is used as the classic example of vector transmission?

Malaria

49
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Which precautions are the three major transmission-based precautions?

Contact, droplet, and airborne

50
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A patient has VRE. Which transmission-based precaution is indicated?

Contact precautions

51
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A patient with influenza requires which transmission-based precaution?

Droplet precautions

52
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A patient with suspected active tuberculosis requires which transmission-based precaution?

Airborne precautions

53
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During mobile radiography of a patient with MRSA, which PPE is identified in the course material?

Gown and gloves

54
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A radiographer is caring for a patient who is highly immunocompromised. Which type of precautions protects the patient from microorganisms carried by healthcare workers?

Protective precautions

55
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Which patient scenario best represents the need for protective precautions?

A neutropenic cardiac transplant patient receiving immunosuppressive drugs

56
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Which three basic components are emphasized under standard precautions?

Hand hygiene, respiratory etiquette, and PPE

57
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A healthcare worker is about to enter a patient's room under standard precautions. What should be performed first?

Hand hygiene

58
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Which infection-control practice is considered the best medical aseptic practice?

Frequent hand hygiene

59
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Which condition makes alcohol hand rub less appropriate because the organism forms spores?

Clostridioides difficile

60
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Which type of nail can increase the number of microorganisms harbored by the hands?

Artificial nails

61
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A radiographer fails to disinfect an x-ray table between patients. What could the table become?

A fomite

62
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Which disinfectant is identified in the course material as an inexpensive environmental surface germicide for the HIV question?

Sodium hypochlorite (bleach), 1 part bleach to 10 parts water

63
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When changing contaminated linens, what action helps contain microorganisms?

Fold the edges toward the center and place the linens into the designated receptacle

64
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What should a healthcare worker avoid doing with contaminated linens?

Shaking or flapping them

65
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A contaminated needle punctures a healthcare worker. What is the event called?

A sharps injury/exposure

66
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What is the first action after an accidental HIV-contaminated needlestick according to the course material?

Wash the puncture site with soap and water

67
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What is the estimated HIV transmission risk from a contaminated needlestick given in the course material?

0.3%

68
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Which occupational exposure route is emphasized as a common route for bloodborne pathogen transmission?

Needlestick injury

69
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Which hepatitis virus is the primary vaccine-preventable hepatitis emphasized for healthcare workers?

Hepatitis B

70
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A patient develops hepatitis after consuming food or water contaminated with feces. Which type of hepatitis is most consistent?

Hepatitis A

71
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Which respiratory pathogen is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

Tuberculosis

72
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A patient has night sweats, loss of appetite, and a persistent cough. Which disease should the radiographer suspect?

Active tuberculosis

73
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Which test is identified in the study material for detecting dormant TB infection?

PPD skin testing

74
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What PPE is identified in the course material for a patient with tuberculosis?

Particulate respirator

75
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What is the portal of exit for tuberculosis when a patient coughs or sneezes?

Respiratory mucus/secretions

76
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A patient inhales tiny infectious particles that remain suspended in the air. What is the mechanism of TB transmission?

Inhalation of airborne droplet nuclei

77
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Which cells are responsible for producing antibodies?

B cells

78
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A patient's tears help provide natural resistance to infection because of which substance?

Lysozymes

79
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What is the primary purpose of vaccination according to the study material?

To stimulate acquired immunity

80
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Antibodies are transferred from a mother to a baby. What type of immunity is this?

Passive immunity

81
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Which defenses are considered examples of natural resistance?

Skin, mucous membranes, normal flora, and inflammatory responses

82
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What does medical asepsis primarily accomplish?

It reduces the number and spread of microorganisms

83
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What is another term for medical asepsis?

Clean technique

84
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What is the main purpose of surgical asepsis?

To create and maintain an area completely free of pathogens

85
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Which procedure is an example of medical asepsis?

Hand hygiene

86
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Which method of sterilization uses steam, pressure, and heat?

Autoclaving

87
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Which sterilization method is most commonly used for items that tolerate heat and moisture?

Autoclaving

88
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A radiology department needs to sterilize heat- and moisture-sensitive electrical equipment. Which method is appropriate according to the course material?

Conventional gas sterilization

89
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Which gas is used in conventional gas sterilization?

Ethylene oxide (EtO)

90
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Why must items sterilized with conventional ethylene oxide gas undergo aeration?

The gas is poisonous and must be removed before the items are used

91
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Which sterilization method uses hydrogen peroxide and free radicals?

Gas-plasma sterilization

92
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A large supply of plastic fiberoptic devices must be sterilized. Which method is identified by the course as appropriate?

Gas-plasma sterilization

93
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Which item is a limitation of gas-plasma sterilization?

It is not effective for long, narrow lumens

94
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Which material cannot be sterilized using gas plasma according to the study material?

Cellulose items such as linens

95
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Which radiation source can be used to sterilize commercial prepackaged sterile supplies?

Cobalt-60

96
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Which sterilization method is considered least satisfactory because effectiveness depends on factors such as time, solution strength, and temperature?

Chemical sterilization

97
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What does a chemical sterility indicator do?

Changes color when the appropriate sterilization conditions have been achieved

98
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Where should chemical sterility indicators be placed on a sterile package?

Inside and outside the package

99
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What does a biological sterility indicator use to monitor sterilization?

Nonpathogenic bacterial spores

100
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A sterile package has been punctured. What should the radiographer do?

Discard the package