P Pre-test (Aircraft Construction, Repair, and Modification)

1. Which of the following conditions would most likely lead to detonation?

A. Late ignition timing.

B. Use of fuel with too high an octane rating.

C. Use of fuel with too low an octane rating.

D. None of the above

C. Use of fuel with too low an octane rating.

2. What retains the nitrogen charge and fire-extinguishing agent in a high rate of discharge (HRD) container?

A. Breakable disk and fusible disk.

B. Pressure switch and check tee valve.

C. Pressure gauge and cartridge.

D. All of the above

A. Breakable disk and fusible disk.

3. Which statement is generally true regarding thrust reverser systems?

A. It is possible to move some aircraft backward on the ground using reverse thrust.

B. Engine thrust reversers on the same aircraft usually will not operate independently of each other (must all be simultaneously).

C. Mechanical blockage system design permits a deployment position aft of the exhaust nozzle only.

D. None of the above

A. It is possible to move some aircraft backward on the ground using reverse thrust.

4. In the event a pneumatic start valve will not operate and the manual override must be used, the starter T-handle must be closed at scheduled starter drop out because:

A. The starter will overheat.

B. The starter will overspeed at a given N².

C. The starter oil will be blown overboard.

D. All of the above

B. The starter will overspeed at a given N².

5. Which of the following engine variables is the most critical during turbine engine operation?

A. Compressor inlet air temperature.

B. Compressor RPM.

C. Turbine inlet temperature.

D. None of the above

C. Turbine inlet temperature.

6. For fire detection and extinguishing purposes, aircraft powerplant areas are divided into fire zones based on:

A. Hot and cold sections of the engine.

B. The volume and smoothness of the airflow through engine compartments.

C. Engine type and size.

D. All of the above

B. The volume and smoothness of the airflow through engine compartments.

7. What will be the likely result if the piston ring gaps happen to be aligned when performing a differential-pressure compression check on a cylinder?

A. Little or no effect.

B. The rings will not be seated.

C. A worn or defective ring(s) indication.

D. None of the above

C. A worn or defective ring(s) indication.

8. What is used in turbine engines to aid in stabilization of compressor airflow during low thrust engine operation?

A. Stator vanes and rotor vanes.

B. Variable guide vanes and/or compressor bleed valves.

C. Pressurization and dump valves.

D. None of the above

B. Variable guide vanes and/or compressor bleed valves.

9. In a turbine engine, where is the turbine discharge pressure indicator sensor located?

A. At the aft end of the compressor section.

B. At a location in the exhaust cone that is determined to be subjected to the highest pressures.

C. Immediately aft of the last turbine stage.

D. None of the above

C. Immediately aft of the last turbine stage.

10. Oil picks up the most heat from which of the following turbine engine components?

A. Rotor coupling.

B. Compressor bearing.

C. Turbine bearing.

D. None of the above

C. Turbine bearing.

11. The purpose of the diaphragm in most vane-type fuel pumps is to:

A. Maintain fuel pressure below atmospheric pressure.

B. Equalize fuel pressure at all speeds.

C. Compensate fuel pressures to altitude changes.

D. All of the above

C. Compensate fuel pressures to altitude changes.

12. What is the purpose of an engine-driven fuel pump bypass valve?

A. To divert the excess fuel back to the main tank.

B. To prevent a damaged or inoperative pump from blocking the fuel flow of another pump in series with it.

C. To divert the excess fuel from the pressure side of the pump to the inlet side of the pump.

D. All of the above

B. To prevent a damaged or inoperative pump from blocking the fuel flow of another pump in series with it.

13. When using an electric starter motor, the current flow through it:

A. Is highest just before starter cutoff (at highest RPM).

B. Remains relatively constant throughout the starting cycle.

C. Is highest at the start of motor rotation.

D. All of the above

C. Is highest at the start of motor rotation.

14. If a float-type carburetor becomes flooded, the condition is most likely caused by:

A. A leaking needle valve and seat assembly.

B. The accelerating pump shaft being stuck.

C. A clogged back-suction line.

D. None of the above

A. A leaking needle valve and seat assembly.

15. Ball joints in reciprocating engine exhaust systems should be:

A. Tight enough to prevent any movement.

B. Disassembled and the seals replaced every engine change.

C. Loose enough to permit some movement.

D. All of the above

C. Loose enough to permit some movement.

16. Which of the following is a characteristic of a thrust bearing used in most radial engines?

A. Tapered roller.

B. Double-row ball.

C. Deep-groove ball.

D. All of the above

C. Deep-groove ball.

17. Generally, unless otherwise specified by the manufacturer, repairs of nicks, scratches, gouges, etc. on aluminum propeller blades must be made:

A. Parallel to the length of the blade.

B. Perpendicular to the blade axis.

C. So as to return the damaged area to the original dimensions.

D. All of the above

A. Parallel to the length of the blade.

18. One of the things a metering orifice in a main air bleed helps to accomplish (at a given altitude) in a carburetor is:

A. Pressure in the float chamber to increase as airflow through the carburetor increases.

B. A progressively richer mixture as airflow through the carburetor increases.

C. Better fuel vaporization and control of fuel discharge, especially at lower engine speeds.

D. None of the above

C. Better fuel vaporization and control of fuel discharge, especially at lower engine speeds.

19. What tool is generally used to measure the crankshaft rotation in degrees?

A. Dial indicator.

B. Timing disk.

C. Prop protractor.

D. None of the above

B. Timing disk.

20. On most reciprocating multiengine aircraft, automatic propeller synchronization is accomplished through the actuation of the:

A. Throttle levers.

B. Propeller governors.

C. Propeller control levers.

D. None of the above

B. Propeller governors.

21. If the main air bleed of a float-type carburetor becomes clogged, the engine will run:

A. Lean at rated power.

B. Rich at rated power.

C. Rich at idling.

D. All of the above

B. Rich at rated power.

22. Proper operation of electric deicing boots on individual propeller blades may best be determined by:

A. Feeling the sequence of boot heating and having an assistant observe the loadmeter indications.

B. Observing the ammeter or loadmeter for current flow.

C. Feeling the boots to see if they are heating.

D. None of the above

A. Feeling the sequence of boot heating and having an assistant observe the loadmeter indications.

23. What is the maximum number of bonding jumper wires that may be attached to one terminal grounded to a flat surface?

A. Two.

B. Three.

C. Four.

D. None of the above

C. Four.

24. The primary purpose in setting proper valve timing and overlap is to:

A. Permit the best possible charge of fuel/air mixture into the cylinders.

B. Gain more thorough exhaust gas scavenging.

C. Obtain the best volumetric efficiency and lower cylinder operating temperatures.

D. None of the above

C. Obtain the best volumetric efficiency and lower cylinder operating temperatures.

25. What is the purpose of an augmenter used in some reciprocating engine exhaust systems?

A. To reduce exhaust back pressure.

B. To aid in cooling the engine.

C. To assist in displacing the exhaust gases.

D. All of the above

B. To aid in cooling the engine.

26. If metallic particles are found in the oil filter during an inspection:

A. It is an indication of normal engine wear unless the particles are nonferrous.

B. The cause should be identified and corrected before the aircraft is released for flight.

C. It is an indication of normal engine wear unless the deposit exceeds a specified amount.

D. None of the above

B. The cause should be identified and corrected before the aircraft is released for flight.

27. By use of a differential pressure compression tester, it is determined that the No. 3 cylinder of a nine-cylinder radial engine will not hold pressure after the crankshaft has been rotated 260° from top dead center compression stroke No. 1 cylinder. How can this indication usually be interpreted?

A. A normal indication.

B. Exhaust valve blow-by.

C. A damaged exhaust valve or insufficient exhaust valve clearance.

D. All of the above

A. A normal indication.

28. Igniter plugs used in turbine engines are subjected to high-intensity spark discharges and yet they have a long service life because they:

A. Operate at much lower temperatures.

B. Are not placed directly into the combustion chamber.

C. Do not require continuous operation.

D. All of the above

C. Do not require continuous operation.

29. What turbine engine section provides for proper mixing of the fuel and air?

A. Combustion section.

B. Compressor section.

C. Diffuser section.

D. All of the above

A. Combustion section.

30. What factor is not used in the operation of an aircraft gas turbine engine fuel control unit?

A. Compressor inlet air temperature.

B. Mixture control position.

C. Power lever position.

D. None of the above

B. Mixture control position.

31. What is the basic operational sequence for reducing the power output of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller?

A. Reduce the RPM, then the manifold pressure.

B. Reduce the manifold pressure, then retard the throttle to obtain the correct RPM.

C. Reduce the manifold pressure, then the RPM.

D. All of the above

C. Reduce the manifold pressure, then the RPM.

32. How many secondary coils are required in a low-tension ignition system on an 18-cylinder engine?

A. 36

B. 18

C. 9

D. None of the above

A. 36

33. In regard to using a turbine engine oil analysis program, which of the following is NOT true?

A. Generally, an accurate trend forecast may be made after an engine's first oil sample analysis.

B. It is best to start an oil analysis program on an engine when it is new.

C. A successful oil analysis program should be run over an engine's total operating life so that normal trends can be established.

D. None of the above

A. Generally, an accurate trend forecast may be made after an engine's first oil sample analysis.

34. The thrust produced by a rotating propeller is a result of:

A. An area of low pressure behind the propeller blades.

B. An area of decreased pressure immediately in front of the propeller blades.

C. The angle of relative wind and rotational velocity of the propeller.

D. None of the above

B. An area of decreased pressure immediately in front of the propeller blades.

35. A Bourdon-tube instrument may be used to indicate:

1. Pressure.

2. Temperature.

3. Position.

4. Quantity.

A. 1 and 2.

B. 1 and 3.

C. 2 and 4.

D. All of the above

A. 1 and 2.

36. When starting a turbine engine, a hung start is indicated if the engine:

A. Exhaust gas temperature exceeds specified limits.

B. Fails to reach idle RPM.

C. RPM exceeds specified operating speed.

D. All of the above

B. Fails to reach idle RPM.

37. The principal fault in the pressure-type fuel flowmeter indicating system, installed on a horizontally opposed continuous-flow fuel-injected aircraft reciprocating engine, is that a plugged fuel injection nozzle will cause a:

A. Normal operation indication.

B. Lower than normal fuel flow indication.

C. Higher than normal fuel flow indication.

D. None of the above

C. Higher than normal fuel flow indication.

38. The basic oil pressure relief valve setting for a newly overhauled engine is made:

A. Within the first 30 seconds of engine operation.

B. When the oil is at a higher than normal temperature to assure high oil pressure at normal oil temperature.

C. In the overhaul shop.

D. None of the above

C. In the overhaul shop.

39. Which of the following types of combustion sections are used in aircraft turbine engines?

A. Annular, variable, and cascade vane.

B. Can, multiple-can, and variable.

C. Multiple-can, annular, and can-annular.

D. None of the above

C. Multiple-can, annular, and can-annular.

40. When a magneto is disassembled, keepers are usually placed across the poles of the rotating magnet to reduce the loss of magnetism. These keepers are usually made of:

A. Chrome magnet steel.

B. Soft iron.

C. Cobalt steel.

D. All of the above

B. Soft iron.

41. If the volume of air passing through a carburetor venturi is reduced, the pressure at the venturi throat will:

A. Decrease.

B. Be equal to the pressure at the venturi outlet.

C. Increase.

D. None of the above

C. Increase.

42. A certain direct current series motor mounted within an aircraft draws more amperes during start than when it is running under its rated load. The most logical conclusion that may be drawn is:

A. The starting winding is shorted.

B. The brushes are floating at operating RPM because of weak brush springs.

C. The condition is normal for this type of motor.

D. All of the above

C. The condition is normal for this type of motor.

43. Where is the highest gas pressure in a turbojet engine?

A. At the outlet of the tailpipe section.

B. At the entrance of the turbine section.

C. In the entrance of the burner section.

D. All of the above

C. In the entrance of the burner section.

44. A pilot reports that the fuel pressure fluctuates and exceeds the upper limits whenever the throttle is advanced. The most likely cause of the trouble is:

A. A ruptured fuel pump relief-valve diaphragm.

B. A sticking fuel pump relief valve.

C. An air leak at the fuel pump relief-valve body.

D. None of the above

B. A sticking fuel pump relief valve.

45. A cool-off period prior to shutdown of a turbine engine is accomplished in order to:

A. Allow the turbine wheel to cool before the case contracts around it.

B. Prevent vapor lock in the fuel control and/or fuel lines.

C. Prevent seizure of the engine bearings.

D. All of the above

A. Allow the turbine wheel to cool before the case contracts around it.

46. Which Federal Aviation Regulation specifies that each resettable circuit protective device requires a manual operation to restore service after the device has interrupted the circuit?

A. 14 CFR Part 23.

B. 14 CFR Part 43.

C. 14 CFR Part 91.

D. None of the above

A. 14 CFR Part 23.

47. When starting an engine equipped with a carburetor air heater, in what position should the heater be placed?

A. Hot.

B. Cold.

C. Neutral.

D. All of the above

B. Cold.

48. Why is high nickel chromium steel used in many exhaust systems?

A. High heat conductivity and flexibility.

B. Corrosion resistance and low expansion coefficient.

C. Corrosion resistance and high heat conductivity.

D. None of the above

B. Corrosion resistance and low expansion coefficient.

49. What is the relationship between the pressure existing within the throat of a venturi and the velocity of the air passing through the venturi?

A. There is no direct relationship between the pressure and the velocity.

B. The pressure is directly proportional to the velocity.

C. The pressure is inversely proportional to the velocity.

D. None of the above

C. The pressure is inversely proportional to the velocity.

50. When an electric primer is used, fuel pressure is built up by the:

A. Internal pump in the primer solenoid.

B. Suction at the main discharge nozzle.

C. Booster pump.

D. All of the above

C. Booster pump.